1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Yuki888 [10]
3 years ago
6

Do you think passing the Intolerable Acts was a reasonable response to the Boston Tea Party? Why or why not?

History
2 answers:
Ann [662]3 years ago
7 0
No, the intolerable acts were a way of suppressing the colonists resistance. In the end , all it did was make the colonists more resistant which in turn, led to the revolutionary war.
Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It was not because it was intolerable towards the colonists!

You might be interested in
Issues between the soviet union and united states
Zielflug [23.3K]
Relations between the Soviet Union and the United States were driven by a complex interplay of ideological, political, and economic factors, as in the case of the Cuban missile crisis, brought them of war
4 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me please
JulsSmile [24]
Ovusley true hope this helps
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did the United States build an over seas empire?
zzz [600]

Answer:

The U.S. used the English (British).

Explanation:

The U.S used the English because only the English knew how to get over too 'soon to be America.' The English then started all those Acts to get the Americans to go to debt. Then, you know, they had the Boston Tea Party, the Boston Massacre, then the Revolutionary War. That way, the English would wave a white flag (surender) or lose, and we would be free. That's how the U.S. used the English to get overseas and build an empire.

3 0
3 years ago
All of the following led to the Renaissance EXCEPT?
Paraphin [41]

The item that did not lead to the renaissance was the medieval kings persuading serfs to move to the cities, as the renaissance culminated in the end of feudalism, reducing the power of kings and increasing the prestige of the bourgeoisie.

The renaissance of the Middle Ages occurred due to the expansion of trade routes, with the emphasis on the Crusades, which, through a religious, economic and political character, strengthened trade relations with the East.

Therefore, the commercial and urban renaissance of the middle ages culminated in transformations in Europe, consolidating the economy through trade and changing the social configuration.

The correct alternative is letter C.

Learn more about renaissance here:

brainly.com/question/5371384

4 0
3 years ago
Why does Las Casas accuse the conquistadors of “pretending to be Christians”?
schepotkina [342]

Bartolome' De Las Casas stated that "those who have traveled to this part of the world pretending to be Christians have uprooted.

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • During the Song Dynasty, the Chinese economy expanded because…
    9·1 answer
  • I NEED HELP ASAP PLZZZ
    15·1 answer
  • The gurgling effect used on george harrison's guitar in "lucy in the sky with diamonds," which became a signature harrison/beatl
    12·1 answer
  • Under Athenian democracy, the court system was comprised of ______________________.
    14·1 answer
  • What type of local government do you have mayor-council? Commission? something else?
    11·1 answer
  • Can someone help me please
    12·1 answer
  • Because of the way the Texas Constitution of 1876 was written, _____ in Texas has more influence on how the state is governed th
    10·1 answer
  • Okay so I have a detective coming in tomorrow to speak to my Criminal Justice class about what he does. Now considering I want t
    5·1 answer
  • How did the railway change peoples lives
    11·1 answer
  • .
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!