Answer:
<u>Record the issuance of note.
</u>
November 1, 2021
Dr. Cash 46000
Cr. Note Payable 46000
<u>Record the adjustment for interest.</u>
December 31, 2021
Dr. Interest Expense 460
Cr. Interest Payable 460
(46000*6%)*3/12 = 460
<u>Record the repayment of the note at maturity</u>
Dr. Note Payable 46000
Dr. Interest Payable 460
Dr. Interest Expense 230
Cr. Cash 46,690
(46000*6%)*1/12 = 230
Explanation:
* At the year end the interest expense is accrued and recorded as interest payable.
Answer:
Part 1.
3.1 times
Part 2.
a. total assets
Part 3
d. the company's ability to generate sufficient cash to repay debt when due.
Explanation:
<u>For Part 1</u>
Inventory turnover measures the activity of liquidity of a company`s inventory. The higher the ratio in comparison, the more efficient the inventory is managed.
<em>Inventory turnover = Cost of Sales ÷ Inventory</em>
therefore,
Inventory turnover = $982,500 ÷ $ 312,500 = 3.1 times
<u>For Part 2</u>
In a common-size Balance Sheet, each item is expressed as a percentage of total assets whereas in a common size Income Statement, Sales revenue is expressed as 100 % and every other item is expressed as a percentage of sales revenue.
<u>For Part 3</u>
Solvency or Liquidity is the ability of short term assets to cover short term liabilities. Also put, it is the company's ability to generate sufficient cash to repay debt when due.
Answer:
quantitative management
Explanation:
Quantitative management -
It is the method by which mathematical and computer technologies are taken into consideration , in order to filter out the financial statistics to select the stocks , is referred to as quantitative management.
The model is very basic to use as once it is established can be used easily.
Hence, from the given statement of the question ,
The correct term is quantitative management.
Answer:
Normal:
$ 3,509.7470
$ 563.7093
$ 2,000.00
Due:
$3,930.9167
$ 597.5319
$ 2,000.00
Explanation:
We solve using the formula for common annuity and annuity-due on each case:
(annuity-due)
<u>First:</u>
C 200.00
time 10
rate 0.12
Normal: $3,509.7470
Due: $3,930.9167
<u>Second:</u>

$563.7093
$597.5319
<u>Third:</u>
No interest so no time value of money the future value is the same as the sum of the receipts regardless of time or being paid at the beginning or ending.
1,000 + 1,000 = 2,000
Answer:
Their combined production should be 20 clothes and 12 wines.
Explanation:
<u>Argentina's opportunity cost to produce 1 unit of cloth = 0.1 wine</u>
Argentina's opportunity cost to produce 1 unit of wine = 10 clothes
Chile's opportunity cost to produce 1 unit of cloth = 0.5 wine
<u>Chile's opportunity cost to produce 1 unit of wine = 2 clothes</u>
Since Argentina' opportunity cost to produce clothes is lower, then it should specialize int he production of clothes. While Chile should specialize in the production of wine. Their combined production should be 20 clothes and 12 wines.