Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
-2/3 Give brainliest
Step-by-step explanation:
It would be 1 over 16 because if you do 4 to the power of 6 and 4 to the power of 8 and divide 4096(which is 4 to the power of 6) and 65,536(which is 4 to the power of 8) than you get 0.0625. If you put 0.0625 in fraction form than its 1 over 16. Hope I helped
I hope this helps you
n^2+3n-18=0
(n+6). (n-3)=0
n+6=0 n= -6
n-3=0 n= 3