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levacccp [35]
4 years ago
12

Opal Production Company uses a standard costing system. The following information pertains to the current year: Actual factory o

verhead costs ($15,000 is fixed) $50,000 Actual direct labor costs (10,000 hours) $130,000 Standard direct labor for 6,000 units: ​ Standard hours allowed 9,500 hours Labor rate $10.00 ​ The factory overhead rate is based on an activity level of 12,000 hours. Standard cost data on an activity level of 12,000 hours is as follows: Variable factory overhead $18,000 Fixed factory overhead 12,000 Total factory overhead $30,000 ​ What is the variable overhead efficiency variance for Opal Production Company?
Business
1 answer:
Mariulka [41]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$750 Unfavorable

Explanation:

The calculation of variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:-

Variable overhead efficiency variance = (Actual direct labor hours - Standard hours allowed) × (Variable factory overhead ÷ Factory overhead rate)

= (10,000 hours - 9,500 hours) × ($18000 ÷ 12000)

= 500 hours × $1.5

= $750 Unfavorable

Therefore for computing the variable overhead efficiency variance we simply applied the above formula.

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Selzik Company makes super-premium cake mixes that go through two processing departments—Blending and Packaging. The following a
solmaris [256]

Answer:

Please see answers below

Explanation:

We know that ;

Beginning work WIP 10,000

Units started 170,000

a. Ending WIP 20,000

Material 100% complete = 20,000 EU

Conversion 100% complete = 8,000 EU

b. Units completed = 160,000

Units started and completed = 150,000

Beginning WIP costs;

Materials cost $8,500

Conversion cost $4,900

Costs added during the period;

Materials cost $139,400

Conversion cost $244,200

Equivalent units for July;

EU for materials = 170,000

EU for conversion = 7,000 + 150,000 + 8,000 = 165,000

Costs per EU:

Materials = $139,400 / 170,000 = $0.82 per EU

Conversion = $244,200 / 165,000 = $1.48 per EU

c. Total costs;

Ending WIP = [20,000 × $0.82] + [8,000 × $1.48] = $28,240

Units transferred out = [$383,600 - $28,240] + $8,500 + $4,900 = $368,760

d. Therefore,

Costs to be accounted for ;

Beginning work in process $13,400

Cost added $383,600

Total costs to be accounted for $397,000

Also,

Costs account ted for are as follow

Units transferred out $368,760

Ending WIP $28,240

Total costs accounted for $397,000

5 0
3 years ago
Salon Du Jour offers special combination packages at a reduced price. Separately, a haircut is $30 and a conditioning treatment
adell [148]

The given scenario is referred to as product bundle pricing.

Option E

<u>Explanation: </u>

Product bundles consist of various individual products or services sold as a merged package to consumers. For particular, brand bundles consisting of complementary products or, less often, similar products are considered "package deals."

When retailers sell multiples of exactly the same items, it is usually called "a multipack," not a package of items.  

For example, a stationary meal in a restaurant or a beach package that contains sunscreen, sand-sheets, towels, and flip-flops as just a product that can be purchased.

Many stores only market many stock products in a consumer package rather than as single or packaged pieces. The package generally costs less for retailers selling identical items separately and as part of a consumer bundle than if a buyer bought the items separately.

7 0
3 years ago
Due to customer no-shows, the Inn at Charlotte hotel is considering implementing overbooking. The Inn at Charlotte has 150 rooms
kirill [66]

Answer:

The unit=9

Explanation:

The Cost of underage Cu= price -cost =200-0 =200 ( as there is no variable cost of the unsold room)

Cost of overage Co= cost - salvage value = 0 -(-325) =325

Service level = Cu / Cu+Co = 200/ 325+200 = 0.3809

which corresponds to the z value of -0.3

the optimum overbooking = mean + z x SD

= 10+ 3 x (-0.3) =9

8 0
3 years ago
Rachel sells 100 shares short at $43. The sale requires a margin deposit equal to 60 percent of the proceeds of the sale. If the
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

23.25%; 62.01%

Explanation:

(a) Amount received:

= No. of shares × selling price

= 100 × $43

= $4,300

Sales deposit = 60% of Amount received

                        = 0.6 × $4,300

                        = $2,580

Amount paid = No. of shares × Purchase price

                      = 100 × $49

                      = $4,900

Therefore, Loss = $4,900 - $4,300

                           = $600

(b) If buys at $27, then

Amount paid = $27 × 100

                     = $2,700

Profit = $4,300 - $2,700

         = $1,600

Loss on investment:

= ($600 ÷ $2,580) × 100

= 23.25%

Profit on investment:

= ($1,600 ÷ $2,580) × 100

= 62.01%

7 0
3 years ago
As a brand new employee, John received a handbook during orientation to help him understand the corporate culture of the firm. T
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

help

Explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
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