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11111nata11111 [884]
3 years ago
8

This question refers to flexibleminusbudget variance formulas with the following descriptions for the​ variables: A​ = Actual; B

​ = Budgeted; P​ = Price; Q​ = Quantity. The flexibleminusbudget variance for materials is $ 2 comma 000 ​(U). The salesminusvolume variance is $ 13 comma 000 ​(U). The price variance for material is $ 38 comma 000 ​(F). The efficiency variance for direct manufacturing labor is $ 9 comma 000 ​(F). Calculate the efficiency variance for materials.
Business
1 answer:
natulia [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$40,000 (U)

Explanation:

Given that,

Flexible-budget variance for materials = $2,000

Price variance for material = $38,000

Sales-volume variance = $13,000

Efficiency variance for direct manufacturing labor = $9,000 (F)

Flexible-budget variance for materials = Price variance for material + Efficiency variance for materials

2,000 (U) = 38,000 (F) + Efficiency variance for materials

Efficiency variance for materials = 2,000 + 38,000

                                                      = $40,000 (U)

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3 years ago
the common sotkc of Ubees is currently sold at $26.35 per share, and it just a divident of $1.00 last year. The flotation costs
White raven [17]

Answer:

11.06%

Explanation:

Cost of equity = (D1/Current price) + Growth rate

Cost of equity = [(1.00*1.07)/26.35] + 0.07

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Cost of equity = 0.11061

Cost of equity = 11.06%

So, Ubees's cost of internal common equity is 11.06%.

7 0
3 years ago
Keisha owns a house worth $275,000 with a mortgage of $195,000. She owns a car worth $12,000 and has $7,500 in car loans. She ha
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

$88,700

Explanation:

Given:

Keisha owns a house value $275,000 with a mortgage of $195,000. She owns a car value $12,000 and has $7,500 in car loans.

She has $3,000 in investments, $2,700 in a bank account, and owes $1,500 on a credit card.

Hence, The net worth of Keisha is $88,700

7 0
2 years ago
Litton Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that the b
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,250,000 / 40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $31.25 per machine hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 31.25*4,780

Allocated MOH= $149,375

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

6 0
3 years ago
Compute the payback period for each of these two separate investments:
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

A. 1.89 years

B. 2.33 years

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,

(A) After-tax income = $72,115

Expected cost = $250,000

Useful life = 4 years

Salvage value = $10,000

Depreciation Value = ($250,000 - $10,000) ÷ 4 = $60,000

Annual net cashflow = After tax income + Depreciation

= $72,115 + $60,000 = $132,115

Payback Period = Machine expected cost ÷ Annual net cash flow

= $250,000 ÷ $132,115

= 1.89 years

(B) After-tax income = $39,000

Machine cost = $200,000

Useful life = 8 years

Salvage value = $13,000

Depreciation value = ($200,000 - $13,000) ÷ 4 = $46,750

Annual net cashflow = After tax income + Depreciation

= $39,000 + $46,750 = $85,750

Payback Period = Machine expected cost ÷ Annual net cash flow

= $200,000 ÷ $85,750

= 2.33 years

4 0
2 years ago
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