1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
12

Why did france grant independence to morocco and tunisia in 1956 but not to algeria?

History
1 answer:
Marrrta [24]3 years ago
4 0
That is because Algeria had millions of French citizens on its soil. They wanted to keep a close eye on these people and needed to fight nationalists who wanted to get Algerian independence while often harming French people, so they decided to keep Algeria a colony in order to monitor these people and protect them.
You might be interested in
Analyze to what extent representative government developed in the thirteen original English Colonies
horsena [70]

Explanation:

Charters of royal colonies provided for direct rule by the king. A colonial legislature was elected by property holding males. ... The colonies along the eastern coast of North America were formed under different types of charter, but most developed representative democratic governments to rule their territories.

When the 13 colonies of the New World were established they set up a representative government because they wanted a system of checks and balances. If their representatives did not meet the interests of the people they could be voted out of office.

6 0
3 years ago
Almost heaven west virginia
nekit [7.7K]

Yes

Explanation:

I really dont know thia wasnt. a good figgt

6 0
2 years ago
Which best describes how Union soldiers treated Lee?
svet-max [94.6K]
<span>The Union soldiers treated Lee after his surrender with great respect. Grant had great respect for Lee and, before they got down to surrender terms, he actually made some small talk with Lee.</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Did cristipher columous sale the alantic ocean?
VashaNatasha [74]
Yes, he sailed across the Atlantic Ocean.
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
400-1400 AD was a dark age for cultural Decay and decline for Europe. What’s the evidence that supports it was both
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

the answer is )“The Dark Ages is a term applied in its widest sense to that period of intellectual depression in the history of Europe from the establishment of the barbarian supremacy in the fifth century (400 AD) to the revival of learning at about the beginning of the fifteenth (1400 AD),

Explanation:

mark me brainliest pls

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • How was a successor to Muhammad chosen?
    8·2 answers
  • Reducing interest rates encourages consumers to _____.
    12·2 answers
  • The Renaissance developed primarily out of a widespread interest in which of the following?
    10·1 answer
  • The writers of the Articles wanted ___.
    14·2 answers
  • 2. How do tourists and tourism affect Central America and the Caribbean?
    13·2 answers
  • Plz help :)
    5·1 answer
  • What practice became known as the spoils system?
    7·1 answer
  • 4. How were the Incas able to keep their empire united?<br> Someone please help me !!
    14·1 answer
  • Please help!!! I will give brainly! I really need it.
    5·2 answers
  • Menciona las principales características de la sociedad burguesa moderna.
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!