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kiruha [24]
3 years ago
13

Pre cal. will give brainiest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexxx [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D. -\dfrac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the fraction:

\dfrac{\dfrac{3}{4y}-\dfrac{2}{y}}{\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{3}{2y}}

Consider the numerator and the denominator separately:

Numerator:

\dfrac{3}{4y}-\dfrac{2}{y}=\dfrac{3}{4y}-\dfrac{8}{4y}=\dfrac{3-8}{4y}=-\dfrac{5}{4y}

Denominator:

\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{3}{2y}=\dfrac{2}{2y}+\dfrac{3}{2y}=\dfrac{2+3}{2y}=\dfrac{5}{2y}

Now,

\dfrac{\dfrac{3}{4y}-\dfrac{2}{y}}{\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{3}{2y}}=\dfrac{-\dfrac{5}{4y}}{\dfrac{5}{2y}}=-\dfrac{5}{4y}\div \dfrac{5}{2y}=-\dfrac{5}{4y}\times \dfrac{2y}{5}=-\dfrac{1}{2}

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Question in photo too lazy to solve lol​
Tamiku [17]

The value of 3centimeters to kilometers is 0,00003 km

<h3>Converting centimeters to meters</h3>

In order to convert centimeters to kilometers, we will use the conversion factor below.

100cm = 1m

1000m = 1km

Given 3cm

3cm = 3/100 m

3cm = 0.03m

Convert to km

Since 1000m = 1km

0.03m = 0.03/1000

0.03m = 0.00003km

Therefore the value of 3centimeters to kilometers is 0,00003 km

Learn more on cm to km here: brainly.com/question/1549097

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Correct and best explained answer gets brainliest. :)
son4ous [18]
Y = x^2 - 64
x^2 - 64 = 0
x^2 = 64
x^2 = 8^2
x = 8 and x = -8
answer is B. x = 8 and x = -8
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help with this please and thank you
Elis [28]

Answer:

the answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Each mark represents 20%, you move right three times. 20x3 = 60

60%

7 0
3 years ago
does the assumption of a poisson distribution with a mean of 6.0 seem appropriate as a probability model for these data? use 0.0
Alenkasestr [34]

The Poisson distribution with a mean of 6.0 is an appropriate model.

<h3>What is mean?</h3>
  • In mathematics and statistics, the concept of mean is crucial. The most typical or average value among a group of numbers is called the mean.
  • It is a statistical measure of a probability distribution's central tendency along the median and mode. It also goes by the name "expected value."
  • There are different ways of measuring the central tendency of a set of values. There are multiple ways to calculate the mean. Here are the two most popular ones:
  • Arithmetic mean is the total of the sum of all values in a collection of numbers divided by the number of numbers in a collection.

Hence, The Poisson distribution with a mean of 6.0 is an appropriate model.

learn more about mean click here:

brainly.com/question/1136789

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
Suppose the odds against winning the lottery as 48,000,000 to 1. What is the probability of the event of winning the lottery giv
kupik [55]

The probability according to the given scenario will be "\frac{1}{48,000,001}".

According to the question:

  • The odds against winning the lottery are 48,000,000 to 1.
  • Favorable outcome = 1

→ The total outcome will be:

= 48,000,000 +1

= 48,000,001

As we know,

→ P(E) = \frac{Favorable \ outcomes}{Total \ outcomes}

By putting the values, we get

→           =\frac{1}{48,000,001}

Thus the above response is right.

Learn more about Probability here:

brainly.com/question/15739211

8 0
3 years ago
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