Scenario 2 would be correct
Answer:
EPS of Plan I = $3.19
EPS of Plan II = $2.82
Explanation:
Under Plan I:
Plan I's Earning per share (EPS) = EBIT ÷ Number of shares = $575,000 ÷ 180,000 = $3.19
Under Plan II:
Interest = $2,600,000 × 8% = $208,000
Earning after Interest = EBIT - Interest = $575,000 - $208,000 = $367,000
Plan II's EPS = $367,000 ÷ 130,000 = $2.82
Answer:
Applied Manufacturing Overheads are $102,000
Overapplied Manufacturing overheads are $18,000
Explanation:
Under or over applied manufacturing overhead can be determined by comparing the actual and applied manufacturing overheads.
Applied overheads can be calculated by multiplying pre-determined overhead rate and actual level of quantity. Predetermined overhead rate is calculated using estimated overhead and estimated activity on which overheads are applied.
In this question the predetermined overhead rate is 120% of direct labor cost.
Applied overhead = Direct labor cost x 120% = $85,000 x 120% = $102,000
Actual overheads incurred = $84,000
Overapplied Manufacturing overheads = $102,000 - $84,000 = $18,000
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "d) All answers are correct." The situation that could have tipped Elise of is that of requiring a free course on money management; charging large monthly fees for the service;<span> asking her to cancel most of her credit cards</span>
Answer:
the decrease in the value of the retained earning is $172,500
Explanation:
The computation of the decrease in the value of the retained earning is given below:
The dividend of the stock is
= (25,000 shares - 2,000 shares) × 10% × $75
= $172,500
Since there is the stock dividend of $172,500 so it ultimately reduced the retained earning account by $172,500