Answer:
100
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that 2 ap's have same common difference
given that their 100th terms difference is 100
let the first no. of first series be a1 and second series be a2
then, a(1)100 - a(2)100=100 ---- 1
for 1st series ---- a100=a1+99d
2nd series ---- a100 = a2+99d
keep these values in (1)
then,
a1+99d - (a2+99d) = 100
a1+99d-a2-99d=100
therefore, a1-a2 =100 ------------------------------------------- 2
then the difference between their 1000th terms is
for 1st series --- a1000 = a1+999d
for 2nd series --- a1000 = a2+999d
their 100th terms difference is
a(1)1000-a(2)1000
a1+999d-(a2+999d)
a1+999d-a2-999d
therefore we get the value a1-a2
from (2) a1-a2 = 100
therefore the difference between their 1000th terms is 100
<h2>
<em><u>PLEASE MARK MY ANSWER AS BRAINLIEST!!!!!</u></em></h2><h2>
<em><u /></em></h2>
Answer:
$199.02
Step-by-step explanation:
If the answer is right then I'm gonna explain it.
Answer:
the answer will be y=1
Step-by-step explanation:
If you plug in (3x-5) in for y in the 6x+3y=15, you will get 6x+9x-15=15. Add the like terms (6x+9x) and get 15x. Bring the -15=15 down. Add 15 to the other 15 on the other side of the equal sign, bring 15x down and then divide 15 by 30 and get x=2. Plug in 2 for x in the (3x-5) equation, then solve and the answer will be y=1.
Answer:
24 Cats.
Step-by-step explanation:
You can set up an inequality of 21/18 and 28/x.
Multiply 18 and 28, you get 504. Divide 504 by 21 and you get your answer of 24.
Here is your answer; ITS CALLED GOOGLE.