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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
8

Since the mid 1970s, the United States has

Social Studies
1 answer:
777dan777 [17]3 years ago
5 0

<u>Answer</u>:

Since the mid 1970s, the United States had a significant trade deficit.

<u>Explanation</u>:

The U.S had undergone a trade deficit since the 1970s. This has been contributed to the fact that they have been importing way more supplies and goods than the other countries were buying from the Americans. These imports have affected the native industries. Also, the demand for American products went down drastically and thus contributing to the deficit.

While Europe and Great Britain undertook industrialization in the 18th century, Americans started it in the 19th century-this delay resulted in the US depending upon imported goods and also in US struggling to meet Europe's levels of export.

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1. How has the status of woman changed in the last 200 years?
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theres multiple ways to answer this question.

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Which motivated British mercantilist policies in the 1700s?
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British mercantilist policies in the 1700s  motivated as to reduce imports brought into English markets by Dutch ships. Thus the correct option is A.

<h3>What are mercantilist policies?</h3>

The maximization of an export surplus—the balance of trade, which was seen as a sign of future prosperity was the mercantilist objective to strengthen the economy.

A type of economic nationalism called mercantilism aimed to strengthen a country's position of authority and prosperity by enforcing unfair trade laws. Exports were encouraged rather than imports in order to boost a state's gold and silver supplies.

Therefore, option A is appropriate.

Learn more about mercantilist policies, here:

brainly.com/question/24394325

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