1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Ghella [55]
3 years ago
10

Craigmont uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts. Its year-end unadjusted trial balance shows Accounts

Receivable of $154,500, allowance for doubtful accounts of $1,165 (credit) and sales of $1,175,000. If uncollectible accounts are estimated to be 0.5% of sales, what is the amount of the bad debts expense adjusting entry?
Business
1 answer:
Slav-nsk [51]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$4,710

Explanation:

The computation of bad debts expense adjusting entry is shown below:-

Bad debts expense adjusting entry = Sales + Uncollectible allowances - Balance in allowance for doubtful accounts

= ($1,175,000 × 0.5%) - $1,165

= $5,875 - $1,165

= $4,710

Therefore for computing the bad debts expense adjusting entry we simply applied the above formula.

The adjusting entry is shown below:-

Bad Debt A/c Dr, $4,710

     To Allowance for Doubtful Debts $4,710

(Being bad debt account is recorded)

You might be interested in
A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 10% per
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

The loss of the financial institution is $413,000

Explanation:

Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:

0.5 * 10% of $10million

= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000

= $500,000

Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M

= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000

= $450,000

Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000

= $50000.

Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.

The forward rates = 8% per annum.

Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is

0.5*0.08*10000000 =

$400,000

Received net payment would be:

500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:

Year 3=$50,000

Year 3.5=$100,000

Year 4 = $100,000

Year 4.5= $100,000

Year 5 = $100,000

Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000

4 0
3 years ago
During its most recent fiscal year, Dover, Inc. had total sales of $3,200,000. Contribution margin amounted to $1,500,000 and pr
ANEK [815]

Answer:

Fixed costs= 1,100,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

During its most recent fiscal year, Dover, Inc. had total sales of $3,200,000. Contribution margin amounted to $1,500,000 and pretax income was $400,000.

We need to reverse engineer the income statement to determine the total fixed costs. We know that the pretax income is the difference between the total contribution margin and the fixed costs.

Pretax= total contribution margin - fixed costs

400,000= 1,500,000 - FC

Fixed costs= 1,500,000 - 400,000

Fixed costs= 1,100,000

5 0
3 years ago
Today is your 20th birthday, and your parents just gave you $5,000 that you plan to use to open a stock brokerage account. You p
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

You anticipate that you will have $432,522 in the account on your 65th birthday, following your final contribution.

Explanation:

To calculate this, we use the formula for calculating the future value (FV) and FV of ordinary annuity as appropriate as given below:

FVd = D * (1 + r)^n ......................................................................... (1)

FVo = P * {[(1 + r)^n - 1] ÷ r} ...................... (2)

Where,

FVd = Future value of initial deposit or balance amount as the case may be = ?

FVo = FV of ordinary annuity starting from a particular year = ?

D = Initial deposit = $5,000

P = Annual deposit =s $500

r = Average annual return = 12%, or 0.12

n = number years = to be determined as necessary

a) FV in five years from now

n = 5 for FVd

n = 4 for FVo

Substituting the values into equations (1) and (2), we have:

FVd = $5,000 * (1 + 0.12)^5 = $8,812

FVo = $500 * {[(1 + 0.12)^4 - 1] ÷ 0.12} = $2,390

FV5 = Total FV five years from now = $8,812 + $2,390 = $11,201

FVB5 = Balance after $5,000 withdrawal  in year 5 = $11,201 - $5,000 = $6,201.

b) FV in 10 years from now

n = 10 - 5 = 5 for both FVd and FVo

Using equations (1) and (2), we have:

FV of FVB5 = $6,201 * (1 + 0.12)^5 = $10,928

FVo = $500 * {[(1 + 0.12)^5 - 1] ÷ 0.12} = $3,176

FV10 = Total FV 10 years from now = $10,928 + $3,176 = $14,104

FVB10 = Balance after $10,000 withdrawal  in year 10 = $14,104 - $10,000 = $4,104

c) FV in 45 years from now

n = 45 - 10 = 35 for both FVd and FVo

Using equations (1) and (2), we have:

FV of FVB10 = $4,104 * (1 + 0.12)^35 = $216,690

FVo = $500 * {[(1 + 0.12)^35 - 1] ÷ 0.12} = $215,832

FV45 = Total FV 45 years from now = $216,690 + $215,832 = $432,522

Conclusion

Therefore, you anticipate that you will have $432,522 in the account on your 65th birthday, following your final contribution.

5 0
3 years ago
The demand curve for a monopoly is horizontal because the demand is perfectly elastic. upward sloping. vertical because the dema
timama [110]

Answer:

Downward sloping

Explanation:

According to the law of demand, this law states that there is a inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded for a commodity. This indicates that as the price of the commodity increases then as a result the quantity demanded for that commodity decreases and as the price of the commodity decreases then as a result the quantity demanded for that commodity increases.

Monopoly refers to the market conditions in which there is only a single firm operating in a whole market.

Hence, due to this inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded, the demand curve for a monopoly firm is downward sloping.

4 0
3 years ago
Johann, a well-known musician, agrees to give ten guitar lessons to Elton for $2,000. Nothing in the contract itself prohibits a
Softa [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is (b)permitted because the contract is just for music lessons.

Explanation:

Recall that,

Johann,  a well known musician  agrees to give out ten lessons of guitar to Elton for an amount of $ 2000. this contract forbids delegation.

Since Johann delegates his obligation to Eugene who is a second year student in music, then his delegation is only allowed because the contract is to take music lessons and nothing more.

7 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • 1. Scenario: Stephanie has been driving for four years without any major auto accidents-until today. It was pouring rain when sh
    5·1 answer
  • Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater river's rapids. Management has determined that there is o
    11·1 answer
  • Which of the following is not one of the reasons to document your secondary sources? It shows your audience that you have suffic
    9·1 answer
  • ack Hammer invests in a stock that will pay dividends of $3.06 at the end of the first year; $3.42 at the end of the second year
    14·1 answer
  • Mediflow, a medium-sized medical technology company, has been successful in its research and development, but needs improvement
    5·1 answer
  • Action Shoes is a company that manufactures shoes. It has a lot of competitors in the market. However, it only builds its streng
    14·1 answer
  • Frank has saved $40.00 for concert tickets, but decides to buy a new pair of jeans instead. In this scenario, what do the concer
    15·1 answer
  • When Ira purchased 500 shares of prefeHallie owns 20% of the common stock of the Bean Brothers Coffee Company. The company annou
    14·1 answer
  • Normally, a person with a high level of education makes more money than a person without an education.
    5·1 answer
  • ______ is a place where buyer and seller meet for the purpose of exchanging, buying and selling of goods services using money as
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!