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erastova [34]
4 years ago
6

X + 4 1/3 = -2 5/6 find x

Mathematics
1 answer:
vladimir2022 [97]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

x = -7  1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 4 1/3 = -2 5/6

x = -7  1/6

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Anna007 [38]
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FG(e) corresponds JI(h)
GE(f) corresponds IH(j)
(h/e)*f=(23.4/11.7)*13.05=26.1
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1. Triangle JKL is dilated by a scale factor of 1.5 with
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Answer:

A. yes

B. yes

C. no

Step-by-step explanation:

The coordinates of each point are (x, y).

J (-2, -3)

K (0, 2)

L (1, -4)

After being scaled by 1.5 about the origin, the coordinates are (1.5x, 1.5y).

J (-3, -4.5)

K (0, 3)

L (1.5, -6)

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Use the slope and the y-intercept to graph each equation <br><br> Y=2x+1
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4 years ago
An isosceles triangle has angle measures 40, 40, and 100. The side across from the 100 angle is 10 inches long. How long are the
Sophie [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
. Suppose (as is roughly true) that 88% of college men and 82% of college women were employed last summer. A sample survey inter
denis23 [38]

Answer:

(a) The approximate distribution of the proportion pf of women who worked = 0.82, the standard distribution = 0.00738

The approximate distribution of the proportion pM of men who worked = 0.88, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01625

(b)  pM - pF =  0.06

While pF - pM = -0.06

The difference in the standard deviation ≈ 0.01025

(c) The probability that a higher proportion of women than men worked last year is 0

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) The given information are;

The percentage of college men that were employed last summer = 88%

The percentage of college women that were employed last summer = 82%

The number of college men interviewed in the survey = 400

The number of college women interviewed in the survey = 400

Therefore, given that the proportion of women that worked = 0.82, we have for the binomial distribution;

p = 0.82

q = 1 - 0.82 = 0.18

n = 400

Therefore;

p × n = 0.82 × 400 = 328 > 10

q × n = 0.18 × 400 = 72 > 10

Therefore, the binomial distribution is approximately normal

We have;

The \  mean = p = 0.82\\\\The \ standard \ deviation, \sigma  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p \times q}{{n} } }= \sqrt{ \dfrac{0.82 \times 0.18}{{400} }} \approx  0.01921\\

Therefore, the approximate distribution of the proportion pf of women who worked = 0.82, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01921

Similarly, given that the proportion of male that worked = 0.88, we have for the binomial distribution;

p = 0.88

q = 1 - 0.88 = 0.12

n = 400

Therefore;

p × n = 0.88 × 400 = 352 > 10

q × n = 0.12 × 400 = 42 > 10

Therefore, the binomial distribution is approximately normal

We have;

The \  mean = p = 0.88\\\\The \ standard \ deviation, \sigma  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p \times q}{{n} } }= \sqrt{ \dfrac{0.88 \times 0.12}{{400} }} \approx  0.01625\\

Therefore, the approximate distribution of the proportion pM of men who worked = 0.88, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01625

(b) Given two normal random variables, we have

The distribution of the difference the two normal random variable = A normal random variable

The mean of the difference = The difference of the two means = pM - pF = 0.88 - 0.82 = 0.06

While pF - pM = -0.06

The difference in the standard deviation, giving only the real values, is given as follows;

The \ difference \ in \ standard \ deviation  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p_1 \times q_1}{{n_1} } -\dfrac{p_2 \times q_2}{{n_2} } }\\\\= \sqrt{\dfrac{0.82 \times 0.18}{{400} }-\dfrac{0.88 \times 0.12}{{400} }} \approx  0.01025\\

(c) When there is no difference between the the proportion of men and women that worked last summer, the probability that there is a difference = 0

Therefore, taking 0 as the standard score, we have;

z = \dfrac{0 - (-0.06)}{0.01025}  \approx 5.86

Given that the maximum values for a cumulative distribution table is approximately 4, we have that the probability that a higher proportion of women than men worked last year is 0.

3 0
3 years ago
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