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Sloan [31]
3 years ago
14

Explain how your work your knowledge of place value helps you divide a number in thousands by whole numbers to 10 give a example

to support your explanation.ill give you soo much points like 30 some thing no 100
Mathematics
1 answer:
Anna71 [15]3 years ago
3 0
Place value is the value each digit has in its position: in order from higher to lower value, there is thousands, hundreds, tens, and ones.
When you divide by 10, you are moving (only once) every digit from its present place value to the right.
For example 6430 : 10= 643, you have moved every digit to the right, making the zero disappear (or better yet, separated by a hidden and in this case useless comma).
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PLEASE HELP DUE TODAY! GIVING BRAINLIEST!!
Lana71 [14]
First, arrange the numbers in order.

50, 55, 58, 60, 62, 64, 68, 70, 72, 76, 84, 92

the minimum (or lower-extreme) would be 50, since it is the lowest number.

the lower quartile would be 59, since 58 and 60 are the two middle numbers on the lower side, you would do 58+60 / 2.

the median would be 66, since 64 and 68 are the two middle numbers. you would do 64+68 / 2.

the upper quartile would be 74, since 72 and 76 are the two middle numbers on the upper side, you would do 72+76 / 2.

the maximum (or upper-extreme) would be 92 since it is the largest number.

to graph, put in your numbers at the bottom (i would probably count by twos). then plot your minimum, lower quartile, median, upper quartile, and maximum. next, draw a box around the lower quartile and upper quartile with the median inside the box. lastly, extend two lines from the left and right side of the box connecting to the minimum and maximum.

i hope this makes sense ! this is what goes through my head when i solve these kinds of problems lol



3 0
3 years ago
Help me Please
Deffense [45]

Answer:

B ≥ 209

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the equation - 25b + 525 ≥ 5750  .      

Comment if I solved it incorrectly ;-;  

6 0
3 years ago
A 1 newton force will stretch a spring 1 meter. The spring/mass system is damped by a force that is 8 times the instantaneous ve
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the mass is m =16kg, and 1N force will stretch the spring 1 m.

That is, F =1N,Z =1m. Now find the spring constant k:

F = kL = 1 = k(1) = k= 1N/m.

The damping force is 8times the instantaneous velocity, this means β = 8,

and the external force is f(t) = 0

Initially the object compressed 0.6m above equilibrium position,

with the downward velocity is 2m/s.

The differential equation for a spring mass system with

damping force and extemal force is: mx" + βxt + kx = f(t).

so, 16x"+ 8x' + x= 0, x(0} = -0.6, x'(0)= 2m/s.

Now solve the DE:

The auxilary equation for the homogeneous equation is 16x"+8x'+x=0

solving we get, 16r² + 8r + 1 = 0 => (4r + 1)² = 0 => r = - 1/4.

Then the general solution for the homogenous system is: x(t)=c_1e^{-t/4} +c_2te^{-t\4}.

Use the initial conditions x (0) = -0.6, x'(0) = 2m/s:

x(0)=c_1e^{0} +c_2(0)e^{0}=-0.6=c_1\\x'(t)=-\frac{1}{4}c_1e^{-t/4}+c_2e^{-t/4}-\frac{1}{4}c_2te^{-t/4}\\x'(0)=-\frac{1}{4}c_1e^0+c_2e^0-\frac{1}{4}c_2(0)e^0=2=-\frac{1}{4}(-0.6)+c_2=c_2=1.85.

Hence, x(t) =-0.6e^{-t/4}+1.85te^{-t/4}.

5 0
3 years ago
Q+r+s, for q=46, s =54
steposvetlana [31]
Q + r + s.....q = 46, s = 54
46 + r + 54
100 + r <==
4 0
4 years ago
The probability that it will be at least 70°on Tuesday is 0.65. If it is at least 70°, there is a 0.8 chance that Mrs. Collins w
Zielflug [23.3K]
P(> or =70) =0.65
P(Collins inside) =0.80
P(not 70) = 1-P(70) =>0.35
P(Collins inside) = 0.1
Then P(70 AND Collin inside) .65 x .8 =0.52
P( not 70 AND Collin Outside = 0.35 x 0.1=0.035
TOTAL Possibility [(70 AND Inside) OR (not 70 AND Outside):
=0.52 + 0.034 =0.555


 

7 0
3 years ago
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