Answer: The graph is below
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Explanation:
If x = 0, then,
g(x) = -x+1
g(0) = -0+1
g(0) = 0+1
g(0) = 1
Therefore, x = 0 leads to y = 1. The point (0,1) is on the g(x) line.
Now try x = 1
g(x) = -x+1
g(1) = -1+1
g(1) = 0
The point (1,0) is also on the g(x) line.
Draw a line through the points (0,1) and (1,0)
Then erase the portion that is to the left of x = -4
This is because g(x) is only graphed when x > -4; i.e. we're only graphing stuff to the right of x = -4.
We'll have an open hole when x = -4 since we aren't including it as part of the graph.
See below.
The best choice from the ones viewable in your picture is B) 1.
With that being said, 1 is used to indicate a perfect fit, which there is not one for this plot.
However, 0 would not be correct either, as 0 implies no correlation. We can see from the graph that there is a correlation.
-0.95 would not work either, as the line appears to trend upward; a negative correlation coefficient indicates it trends down.
Answer:
52 factorial is 52*51*...*1, so a really big number. Google says 8.0658175e+67.
Answer
-8 r > 0
Step-by-step explanation:
you know that r is less than or equal to -8, so you write that, and then you know that r is also greater than 0, so then you add that to it, and then you have the answer. r will be in the middle because it is the range of what are can be.
Answer:
See below.
Step-by-step explanation:
x + y = 3
Subtract x from both sides:
x - x + y = 3 - x
y = -x + 3 which is slope-intercept form.