How does a higher level of saving lead to higher gdp in the future?

Straight-Line Depreciation Irons Delivery Inc. purchased a new delivery truck for $42,000 on January 1, 2019. The truck is expec

Ket [755]

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $7,996

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchase price= $42,000

Useful life= 5 years

Salvage value= $2,020

<u>To calculate the annual depreciation under the straight-line method, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (42,000 - 2,020) / 5

Annual depreciation= $7,996

5 0

3 years ago

What is true about credit unions?

andre [41]

Do you have any more info

5 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A time draft payable to a seller of goods with payment guaranteed by a bank is a:_____.

Alexeev081 [22]

A banker's acceptance is the payment guaranteed by a bank for a time draft that is payable to a seller of the goods.

A banker's acceptance is a short-term investment plan that is created by a company or firm with a guarantee from a bank. It is important that the company or firm is a non-financial firm. It is a guarantee that the bank gives that a buyer will pay the seller the amount at a future date. A good rating is a prerequisite for obtaining the banker's acceptance.

This is very useful, especially during foreign trade. During foreign trade, the creditworthiness of the importer is not known. The period of the banker's acceptance is usually lesser than 180 days. These acceptances are traded at discounts from the face value in the secondary markets. So, the banker's acceptance acts as a negotiable time draft.

This guarantee from the bank is a written promise by the bank to the seller to pay the sum specified if the buyer is not able to do so. This promise is backed by the bank so the seller feels confident in exporting his goods. As it is safe and liquid, the return on the banker's acceptance is low.

Learn more about banker's acceptance here:

brainly.com/question/13190092

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3 0

2 years ago

Consider a two-firm oligopoly facing a market inverse demand curve of P = 100 – 2(q1 + q2), where q1 is the output of Firm 1 and

pickupchik [31]

Answer:

option (2) q1 = 16; q2 = 12

Explanation:

Given:

P = 100 - 2(q1 + q2)

here,

q1 is the output of Firm 1 and q2 is the output of Firm 2

Firm 1's marginal cost = $12

Firm 2's marginal cost = $20

Now,

Profit maximising level of output is attained where the marginal revenue equals the marginal cost

Thus,

for firm 1,

Total revenue, TR = P×Q

TR = (100 - 2q1 - 2q2) × q1

or

TR = 100q1 - 2(q1)² - 2(q1)(q2)

also,

MR = $\frac{\delta TR}{\delta Q}$

thus,

MR = 100 - 4q1 - 2q2

MC = $12

now

MR = MC

or

100 - 4q1 - 2q2 = 12

or

88 = 4q1 + 2q2

or

q2 = 44 - 2q1 ............... (1)

also,

for firm 2, we have

TR = (100 - 2q1 - 2q2) × q2

or

TR = 100q2 - 2(q1)(q2) - 2(q2)²

and,

$MR = \frac{\delta TR}{\delta Q}$

or

MR = 100 - 2q1 - 4q2

and

MC = $20

Now,

MR = MC

or

100 - 2q1 - 4q2 = 20

or

80 - 4q2 = 2q1

or

40 - 2q2 = q1 .....................(2)

Now,

substituting the value of q2 from (1), we get

q1 = 40 - 2(44 - 2q1)

or

q1 = 40 - 88 + 4q1

or

3q1 = 48

or

q1 = 16 units

substituting the value of q1 in equation (1) , we get

q2 = 44 - 2 × 16

or

q2 = 12 units

Therefore,

The correct answer is option (2) q1 = 16; q2 = 12

4 0

3 years ago

11. Calculating the price elasticity of supply Deborah is a college student who lives in San Francisco and does some consulting

oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer: 1.60

Explanation:

P1 = 30

P2 =50

Q1 = 6

Q2 = 16

Elasticity of supply:

$=\frac{(7-3)}{(50-30)}\times\frac{(50+30)}{(7+3)}$

$=\frac{4}{20}\times\frac{80}{10}$

= 1.60

Using the midpoint method, the elasticity of Deborah’s labor supply between the wages of $30 and $50 per hour is approximately 1.60, which means that Deborah’s supply of labor over this wage range is elastic.

7 0

3 years ago