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Snowcat [4.5K]
4 years ago
7

Identify a difference between the crisis stage and the dissolution stage of organizational decline. Select one: a. In the crisis

stage, managers fail to recognize the internal or external changes that will harm their organizations, whereas in the dissolution stage, managers assume that if they just run a tighter ship, company performance will return to previous levels. b. In the crisis stage, management announces belt-tightening plans designed to cut costs, increase efficiency, and restore profits, whereas in the dissolution stage, management recognizes the need to change but still takes no action. c. Decline is reversible at the crisis stage, whereas it is irreversible at the dissolution stage. d. The crisis stage is the first stage of organizational decline, whereas the dissolution stage is the fifth stage of organizational decline.
Business
2 answers:
pentagon [3]4 years ago
7 0

Answer: c. Decline is reversible at the crisis stage, whereas it is irreversible at the dissolution stage.

Explanation: Crisis Stage; at this stage decline is still reversible if the

organisation reorganizes it ways of operations or conducting business. What they can do at this point is to carryout cutbacks and layoffs which would help reduce it's financial burden and create additional capital to run the business. At the dissolution stage nothing can be done anymore to salvage the company as it would have run into bankruptcy and would need to fold up.

Step2247 [10]4 years ago
4 0

Answer: The correct option is C.

Explanation: An Organizational decline usually occur when companies do not anticipate, recognize, neutralize or adapt to the pressures that threaten their survival, be it internal or external. In other words, organizational decline occurs when organizations do not think that there is a need for change.

The crisis stage of organizational decline is reached when all the prior actions taken have failed and it now becomes obvious that without any major change, the survival of the organization at risk.

The Dissolution stage in organizational decline is reached when an organization fails to make the changes needed to sustain the organization. To put it simply, it is the end of a business.

From the explanation above, we can see that if actions are taken, the crisis stage can be reversed, while the dissolution stage signifies the end of a business.

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Sanford Co. sells $500,000 of 10% bonds on March 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on September 1 and March 1. The due date of the
Ilya [14]

Answer:

Sanford Co.

Bond Amortization Schedule  

Period     PV           PMT                Interest                FV

1          $468,951.03         $25,000.00         $28,137.06         $472,088.09

2        $472,088.09         $25,000.00        $28,325.29          $475,413.38

Year #1 end

3        $475,413.38         $25,000.00         $28,524.80          $478,938.18

4        $478,938.18         $25,000.00         $28,736.29         $482,674.47

Year #2 end

5      $482,674.47         $25,000.00         $28,960.47         $486,634.94

6     $486,634.94         $25,000.00          $29,198.10          $490,833.04

Year #3 end

7    $490,833.04          $25,000.00        $29,449.98         $495,283.02

8    $495,283.02         $25,000.00         $29,716.98         $500,000.00

Year #4 end

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Face value of bonds = $500,000

Proceeds from bonds = $468,951

Bonds Discounts = $31.049

Coupon interest rate = 10%

Effective interest rate = 12%

N (# of periods)  8

I/Y (Interest per year)  12

PMT (Periodic Payment)  25000

FV (Future Value)  500000

Results

PV = $-468,951.03

Sum of all periodic payments $200,000.00

Total Interest $231,048.97

8 0
4 years ago
Mill Co.'s trial balance included the following account balances at December 31, Year 6:
o-na [289]

Answer:

D) $45,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount which is included in the current liability section is shown below:

= Account payable balance + bonds payable -  discount on bonds payable + dividend payable

= $15,000 + $25,000 -  $3,000 + $8,000

= $45,000

The current liability is that liability which is arise for one year. Since, the notes payable is a long term liabilities so we do not consider in the computation part.

4 0
3 years ago
The Feedforward system cannot anticipate problems before it occurs.<br> A) True<br> B) False
Basile [38]
Answer should be a sorry if i’m wrong
4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, the Sleepy Monk Coffee Shop paid $15,000 for a full year of rent beginning on January 1. The rent payment was appr
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

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Explanation:

According to the given data the rent has been expired for one month so only one month's rent expense will be recorded. Therefore to calculate one month's rent expense we have to make the following calculation:

one month's rent=Total rent/period for which rent is paid*1

one month's rent=$15,000/12*1

one month's rent=$1,250

Therefore, If financial statements are prepared on January 31, the journal entry to record the adjustment would be debit rent expense and credit prepaid rent for $1,250

5 0
3 years ago
If there's a huge increase in the number of Americans traveling to Europe (say, for the Olympics), then the effect on the foreig
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

If there is a huge increase in the number of Americans travelling to Europe then as a result the demand for the euros increases in the foreign exchange market.

Americans won't be able to spend dollar for doing any transaction in Europe, so there is a need to exchange dollar for euros. Hence, this will increase the demand for euros and there is a appreciation of Europe currency. Therefore, the value of euro also increases.

8 0
4 years ago
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