A. Compromise because they are working out a way to fix the conflict.
Answer:
Interest per week=17.4%
Explanation:
Using equation
F=P(1+i)^n
where n is the time period,P is the present value and F is the future value
Given F=550,P=42 and n=16 solving equation we will get
i=17.4%
Answer:
9.63%
Explanation:
Calculation of Mutual Fund rate of return that the investor receive on the fund last year
Using this formula
Rate=(Fund's NAV -NAV per share +Income distributions+ Capital gain distributions )
Let plug in the formula
Where:
Fund's NAV =$19.14
NAV per share=$19.00
Income distributions=.57
Capital gain distributions =1.12
Hence
Rate =($19.14 - 19.00 + .57 + 1.12) / $19.00
=1.83/$19.00
=0.0963×100
Rate = 9.63%
Therefore without considering taxes and transactions costs, the rate of return that the investor receive on the fund last year will be 9.63%
Answer:
So a favorable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance
Explanation:
<em>Material price variance</em>
<em>A material price variance occurs where materials are purchased at a price either lower or higher than the standard price. </em>A favourable variance is recorded where the actual total cost of materials of a given quantity is lower that the standard cost. While an adverse variance implies the opposite
<em>Material usage variance</em>
<em>A material usage variance occurs when the standard quantity required to active a particular level of production is higher or lower than than the actual actual quantity used.</em> A favorable variance would mean than less quantity of materials were used than the standard to achieve a given output level. And an adverse variance would mean the opposite
<em>Relationship between Usage variance and Price variance</em>
Where savings are made from purchase of cheap and inferior quality materials these might lead to an adverse usage variance by a greater value .This is so because workers might need to use a larger quantity ( more than the standard required) of a low-quality materials to achieve production.
So a favourable material price variance might be more than offset by an adverse usage variance
Answer:
$50.8
Explanation:
As per given Data
Dividend Paid = $3
Worth of the stock is the present value of all the cash flows associated with the stock. Dividend is the only cash flow that a stock holder receives against its investment in the stocks. We need to calculate the present values of all the dividend payments.
Formula for PV of dividend
PV of Dividend = Dividend x ( 1 + growth rate )^n x ( 1 + r )^-n
1st year
PV of Dividend = $3 x ( 1 + 20%)^1 x ( 1 + 14% )^-1 = $3.16
2nd year
PV of Dividend = $3 x ( 1 + 20%)^2 x ( 1 + 14% )^-2 = $3.32
3rd year
PV of Dividend = $3 x ( 1 + 20%)^3 x ( 1 + 14% )^-3 = $3.50
After three years the dividend will grow at a constant rate of 5%, so we will use the following formula to calculate the present value
PV of Dividend = [ $3 x ( 1 + 20%)^3 x ( 1 + 5%) / ( 14% - 5% ) ] x [ ( 1 + 14% )^-3 ]
PV of Dividend = $40.82
Value of Stock = $3.16 + $3.32 + $3.50 + $40.82 = $50.8
