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suter [353]
3 years ago
11

What does it mean when a line of best fit has a correlation coefficient close to 0?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vinvika [58]3 years ago
7 0
It means the data is totally random havin no correlation at all
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Consider the number 284,682
Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

Hundred thousand's 200000

Ten thousand's = 80000

Thousand's = 4000

Hundreds = 600

Tens = 80

Ones = 2

This is the place value of 284682

Two hundred eighty-four thousand six hundred eighty-two

5 0
3 years ago
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irakobra [83]

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3 years ago
Write .139 as a percent.
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

13.9%

Step-by-step explanation:

0.139 x 100=13.9, can you give me brainiest if its correct

4 0
3 years ago
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Solve for X then find the measure of DEF. Write your answers in decimal form.
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

Since EF bisects ∠DEF, we know that EF splits ∠DEF in 2 halves from the word 'bisects', which can be written as 'bi- sects' , where bi means 2 and sects means sections

Hence, ∠DEG = ∠GEF --------------(1)

We are given the measure of these angles:

∠DEG = 3x - 4

∠GEF = x + 13

Now, replacing the values in (1):

3x - 4 = x + 13

2x = 17

x = 17/2

Now, finding the measure of ∠DEF:

∠DEF = ∠DEG + ∠GEF

∠DEF = 3x - 4 + x + 13

∠DEF = (51 / 2) - 4 + (17/2) + 13                      (x = 17/2)

∠DEF = 34 - 4 + 13

∠DEF = 43°

7 0
4 years ago
(1,0) is an ordered pair of the function f(x)=1 +x true or false​
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

Rewrite equation:

f(x)=1+x

Substitute X for 1:

f(1)=1+1

Combine like terms:

f(1)=2

the equation equals 2 not 0 so it is false

5 0
4 years ago
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