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kogti [31]
3 years ago
13

Graham Petroleum produces oil. On May 1, it had no work-in-process inventory. It started production of 244 million barrels of oi

l in May and shipped 216 million barrels in the pipeline. The costs of the resources used by Graham in May consist of the following: Materials $ 3,245 million Conversion costs (labor and overhead) $ 3,230 million
Required: The production supervisor estimates that the ending work-in-process is 60 percent complete on May 31. Compute the cost of oil shipped in the pipeline and the amount in work-in-process ending inventory as of May 31. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers in millions. For example, enter "1" instead of "1,000,000".)
Business
1 answer:
lisov135 [29]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Number of completed barrels = 216 + (244-216)*60%

= 233 barrels

Cost per barrel = (3245+3230)/233 = 27.8

Cost of oil shipped in pipeline = 216 * 27.8= 6003 millions

Cost of work in process ending inventory = (244-216)*60% * 27.8

= 467.04 million

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On January 1, 20Y3, The Simmons Group, Inc., purchased the assets of NWS Insurance Co. for $37,152,500, a price reflecting an $5
Triss [41]

Answer:

The Simmons Group, Inc.

a. December 31, 20Y9, the book value of Goodwill before impairment = $5,572,875

b. Effects on the accounts of the December 31, 20Y9 adjustment for the goodwill impairment:

1. Impairment loss of $3,901,012 will be accounted for in the Income Statement for the year, thus reducing the reported profits by $3,901,012.

2. Goodwill be reduced to $1,671,863 in the balance sheet by deducting the impairment loss of $3,901,012 from the book value before the impairment.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Jan. 1, 20Y3, Purchase price of NWS Insurance Co. = $37,152,500

Goodwill on acquisition = $5,572,875

December 31, 20Y9, the book value of Goodwill before impairment = $5,572,875

Impaired value - $1,671,863

Impairment loss = $3,901,012 ($5,572,875 - $1,671,863)

b) The Goodwill impairment shows that the carrying amount, $1,671,863, is less than the fair value of $5,572,875.  Goodwill is an intangible asset which Simmons Group acquired from NWS Insurance on January 1, 20Y3.  It is annually tested for impairment by comparing the fair value with the carrying value.  

6 0
3 years ago
If a country imposes a tariff on imported shoes, we expect the domestic price of shoes to ______ .
boyakko [2]

If a country imposes a tariff on imported shoes, we expect the domestic price of shoes to rise, domestic consumption to fall, and domestic production to rise.

A levy on imported goods is known as a tariff. The use of an example is the simplest way to explain how it operates. The US lumber industry is the example we've used throughout this section, and it's continuing below. The domestic equilibrium price and quantity in the domestic market are $1,000 per board foot and 40 million board feet, respectively. PD = $1,000 and QD = 40,000,000 are used to represent this. The world price, or PW, in this instance is significantly less than the local price. While this is not always the case, if PW is higher than PD, there is no reason to import (This model assumes that imports are identical to domestic products in every respect except for price).

American customers will buy a lot more lumber if they can obtain imports for as little as $400. The number of units they will be demanded will rise to 70 million (40 million more than the domestic equilibrium). With the improved accessibility to inexpensive lumber, these consumers are vastly better off.

The imports, on the other hand, cause domestic producers to lose a significant amount of surplus. Previously, they could have provided 40 million board feet of lumber for $1,000, but now they can only provide 10 million. This is due to the fact that many domestic companies will either exit the market or reduce production since they can no longer compete with the foreign production.

60 million board feet of lumber are imported from Canada out of a total production of 70 million board feet, 10 million of which are produced domestically.

To lean more about Tariffs from the given link.

brainly.com/question/26923792

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
Calculate the current price of a $1,000 par value bond that has a coupon rate of 6 percent, pays coupon interest annually, has 2
Dovator [93]

Answer: $413.81

Explanation:

Price of a bond = Present value of coupon payments + Present value of face value

Coupon is a constant payment so is an annuity.

Coupon = 6% * 1,000 = $60

Price of bond = Present value of annuity + Present value of face value

= (Coupon * Present value interest factor of annuity (PVIFA), 27 periods, 15%) + (Face value / (1 + rate) ^ number of periods)

= (60 * 6.514) + (1,000 / (1 + 15%)²⁷

= $413.81

8 0
3 years ago
The tax treatment regarding the sale of existing assets that are sold for more than the book value but less than the original pu
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

capital gain tax liability

Explanation:

Capital gain tax is defined as the type of tax that is paid when the owner of an investment or asset makes a profit from its sale.

For example when the assets are sold for more than the book value but less than the original purchase price, there is a profit made that is called capital gain.

The tax applied to this capital gain is called capital gain tax liability.

6 0
3 years ago
Young Company budgets sales of $112,900,000, fixed costs of $25,000,000, and variable costs of $66,611,000. What is the contribu
quester [9]

Answer:

a. The contribution margin ratio will be 41%

b. The income from operations will be $12,420,000.

Explanation:

a. The sales are given at $112,900,000.

The fixed costs are $25,000,000.

The variable costs are $66,611,000.

The contribution margin will be

=Sales-variable costs

=$(112,900,000-66,611,000)

=$46,289,000

The contribution margin ratio will be

=(Contribution margin/sales)*100

=($46,289,000/ $112,900,000)*100

=41%

b. Now, if the contribution margin ratio is 40%.

The sales are given at $34,800,000.

The fixed costs are $1,500,000.

Income from operations or operating profit will be

=(sales*contribution margin ratio)-fixed cost

=$(34,800,000*0.4)-$1,500,000

=$12,420,000

7 0
3 years ago
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