1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
N76 [4]
3 years ago
8

How did the change in Spanish policy affect American farmers in the west? (When Spain changed it's policies toward American good

s in New Orleans and let them move downwards to be able to trade, what is the affect on the West is what I am asking).
History
2 answers:
Darina [25.2K]3 years ago
6 0
Because it allowed people to get goods and earn money
<span />
lubasha [3.4K]3 years ago
4 0
It allowed people to earn money and grow their land and crops so that they were capable of earning more profit. 
You might be interested in
How did the first Americans reach North America
valentina_108 [34]
The ancestors of living Native Americans arrived in what is now the United States at least 15,000 years ago, possibly much earlier, from Asia via Beringia.
4 0
3 years ago
Why is comparative mythology important to the study of myths?
MatroZZZ [7]
Because that is how people used to explain things
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
During the age of the exploration both the Spanish and the French did what
allsm [11]

Answer:

These are the options for the question:

A. allowed religious tolerance in their colonies.

B. enslaved American Indians.

C. tried to spread religion in the Americas.

D. forced the American Indians to move to cities.

And this is the correct answer:

C. tried to spread religion in the Americas.

Explanation:

During the age of exploration, both the French and the Spanish tried to spread their religion to the Americas. This religion was Catholic Christianity.

The Spanish arrived first in the Americas, and converted most Native Americans to Catholicism. The French, decades later, did the same, but they tended to mix less with the Native Americans than the Spanish.

8 0
3 years ago
Why did the national government have no power under the Articles of Confederation?​
kow [346]

Answer:

One of the biggest problems was that the national government had no power to impose taxes. To avoid any perception of “taxation without representation,” the Articles of Confederation allowed only state governments to levy taxes. To pay for its expenses, the national government had to request money from the states.

5 0
2 years ago
1. "All of these Hollywood stars say that you should vote for Governor Tibet."
solmaris [256]
The options that are listed above are known to be the types of propaganda. And here are the answers to the given situations above:
1. B. TESTIMONIALS
2. A. NAME CALLING
3. D. GLITTERING GENERALITIES
4. C. VOLUNTEERISM
Hope this answers your question. 
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • How did the Constitutional Convention resolve the issue of whether or not to count enslaved people when determining states repre
    5·1 answer
  • List 2 powers not granted to the constitution
    13·2 answers
  • Evidence that supports Reasons for Japanese Americans incarcerated during WWII?
    10·1 answer
  • What comes to mind when you hear the term “the Renaissance”
    13·2 answers
  • Which action was a major political result of the Kansas-Nebraska Act?
    7·2 answers
  • How did citizens of the Byzantine Empire treat their Emperor?
    5·1 answer
  • HELP PLZZZZZZZZZZZZZ!!!!!!
    10·1 answer
  • The _____ river divides Paraguay in half.
    9·2 answers
  • HELPP!! Please PLEASE IF YOU SEE THIS GIVE ME AN ANSWER............
    15·2 answers
  • What did South Carolina point to as evidence that Northern states had broken the contract between the states, and thus freed Sou
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!