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Nikitich [7]
3 years ago
9

Sales reps are supposed to create a record on a child object of Opportunities called Survey Request when an Oppo rtunity is move

d to Closed Won. The VP of Sales Operations has indicated that this doesn't always happen, or the rep doesn't populate all fields correctly. The System administrator has been asked to remove permissions from Sales to create these records and automate record creation. Which tool should be used?
a. Approvals
b. Visual Flow
c. Process Builder
d. Workflow
Business
2 answers:
poizon [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Process builder

Explanation:

Process builder is the best tool to use in this case. This is because it will definitely highlighted the things instructed to do. In other words, it is specifically used or adopted to remove permissions from Sales to create these records and automate record creation. And this is the work being instructed or expected to do as a sales rep.

Gnoma [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

process builder( c )

Explanation:

The tool that can be used to create records and automate record creation after permissions have been removed by the system administrator is the " process builder"TOOL

The process builder tool allows for the development of processes that can be seen from a top view and this ensures that all steps taken in closing up a business deal can be seen all at once from the top. this tool is usually employed when a business is at the closing stages of a deal/business and the actions listed are highlighted

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Splish Company provides the following information about its defined benefit pension plan for the year 2017. Service cost $110,00
kipiarov [429]

Answer: $155,520

Explanation:

Pension Expense = Service Cost - Expected return on plan assets + Prior service cost amortization + Interest cost

Interest Cost

= Interest rate * Projected benefit obligation

= 0.09 * 728,000

= $65,520

Pension Expense = 110,000 - 30,000 + 10,000 + 65,520

= $155,520

3 0
3 years ago
What must be the price of a $10000 bond with a 6.8% coupon rate, semiannual coupons, and eight years to maturity if it has a yie
Neko [114]

Answer:

Coupon (R) = 6.8% x 10,000 = $680

Face value (FV) = $10,000

Number of times coupon is paid in a year (m) = 2

No of years to maturity = 8 years

Yield to maturity (Kd) = 8% = 0.08

Po = R/2(1- (1 + r/m)-nm) +  FV/ (1+r/m)n m

                      r/m

Po = 680/2(1-(1+0.08/2)-8x2) + 10,000/(1 + 0.08/2 )8x2

                          0.08/2                              

Po = 340(1 - (1 + 0.04)-16)    + 10,000/(1 + 0.04)16

                      0.04                            

Po = 340(1-0.5339) + 10,000/1.8730

                 0.04

Po = 3,961.85 + 5,339.03

Po = $9,300.88

Explanation:

The current market price of a bond is a function of the present value of semi-annual coupon and present value of the face value. The present value of semi-annual coupon is obtained by multiplying the coupon by the present value of annuity factor at 8% for 8 years. The present value of face value is obtained by discounting the face value at the discount factor for 8 years. The addition of the two gives the present value of the bond. All these explanations have been captured by the formula.

3 0
3 years ago
Which type of third party plan covers prescriptions for anyone eligible for medicare benefits, including senior citizens?
Citrus2011 [14]
The third party plan that covers prescriptions for those eligible for medicare is usually an insurance plan that has extended health so that after paying a small deductible like $25 then the medicine costs will be reimbursed at the rate of say 80% of their costs.
7 0
3 years ago
Which is typical relationship between time and interest rate
allsm [11]
One typical relationship between time and interest rate would be simple interest rate. It is the most simplest interest rate however it is not used nowadays since it  does not account for all cost along the value of the money. For this relationship, interest rate is directly proportional with time.
5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2016 Ballard Company spent $13,000 on an asset to improve its quality. The asset had been purchased on January 1,
tekilochka [14]

$24,800 would be the book value of the asset on January 1, 2019

Explanation:

Straight-line depreciation is a popular depreciation process in which the value of a fixed asset slowly declines over its useful life.

Straight line depreciation is the default method used to slowly reduce the amount of a fixed product over its useful life.

Divide the estimated useful life (in years) into 1 to arrive at the straight-line depreciation rate.

Multiply the depreciation rate by the asset cost (less salvage value).

For example, if a of $20,000 and a useful life of 5 years. The straight line depreciation for the machine would be calculated as follows: Cost of the asset: $100,000. Cost of the asset – Estimated salvage value: $100,000 – $20,000 = $80,000 total depreciable cost.

4 0
3 years ago
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