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aleksley [76]
3 years ago
6

McCurdy Co.'s Class Q bonds have a 12-year maturity, $1,000 par value, and a 5.75% coupon paid semiannually (2.875% each 6 month

s), and those bonds sell at their par value. McCurdy's Class P bonds have the same risk, maturity, and par value, but the P bonds pay a 5.75% annual coupon. Neither bond is callable. At what price should the annual payment bond sell
Business
1 answer:
dem82 [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$993.08

Explanation:

the market interest is 2.875% semiannual, that is why Q bonds are sold at par. To determine the value of P bonds we must add the present value of the face value and the coupon payments:

the effective interest rate = (1 + 5.75%/2)² - 1 = 5.83%

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 5.83%)¹² = $1,000 / 1.974405523 = $506.48

PV of coupon payments = $57.50 x 8.46254 (PV annuity factor, 5.83%, 112 periods) = $486.60

market price = $993.08

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What is a BFOQ? Should BFOQs be allowed?
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

In employment law, a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) (US) or bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR) (Canada) or genuine occupational qualification (GOQ) (UK) is a quality or an attribute that employers are allowed to consider when making decisions on the hiring and retention of employees—a quality that when considered in other contexts would constitute discrimination and thus be in violation of civil rights employment law. Such qualifications must be listed in the employment offering.[citation needed]

Explanation:

Canada

The law of Canada regarding bona fide occupational requirements was considered in a 1985 Canadian court case involving an employee of the Canadian National Railway, K. S. Bhinder, a Sikh whose religion required that he wear a turban, lost his challenge of the CNR policy that required him to wear a hard hat.[1] In 1990, in deciding another case, the Supreme Court of Canada amended the Bhinder decision: "An employer that has not adopted a policy with respect to accommodation and cannot otherwise satisfy the trier of fact that individual accommodation would result in undue hardship will be required to justify his conduct with respect to the individual complainant. Even then the employer can invoke the BFOQ defence."[2]

United States

In employment discrimination law in the United States, both Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act contain a BFOQ defense. The BFOQ provision of Title VII provides that:

[I]t shall not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire and employ employees, for an employment agency to classify, or refer for employment any individual, for a labor organization to classify its membership or to classify or refer for employment any individual, or for an employer, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship or other training or retraining programs to admit or employ any individual in any such program, on the basis of his religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise ...[3]

i'm not able to add the balance of the answer so pls go to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bona_fide_occupational_qualification

5 0
3 years ago
In many cases, companies that enter a market after innovative products have been introduced can achieve long-term competitive ad
yuradex [85]

Answer:

First-mover

Second-mover

Explanation:

A first mover is a provider of product, that achieves a market advantage by being the first type of product to be marketed. Generally, being gets the first firm in the market to get the advantage of the strong market and customer satisfaction.

The "second mover's advantage" is the value of joining others into a business or imitating an old product that a new innovative company gets.

In this case VisiCalc is a First-mover and Microsoft is a Second-mover.

3 0
3 years ago
All of the following statements related to preparation of the statement of cash flows under U.S. GAAP and IFRS are true except:
iVinArrow [24]

Answer: IFRS permits the classification of cash outflows for interest expense under operating or financing based on which one results in better cash flows from operating activities.

Explanation: The cash flow statement includes only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents; it excludes transactions that do not directly affect cash receipts and payments. These non-cash transactions include depreciation or write-offs on bad debts or credit losses to name a few.

6 0
3 years ago
A company prepares its income statement by listing all sources of revenues and gains at the top, followed by a list of all expen
lapo4ka [179]

Answer:

Single step income statement

Explanation:

The single step income statement is the simplest form in which an income statement is prepared, e.g.

Revenues:

  • Sales revenues $100
  • Interest income $20               $120

Expenses:

  • Rent expense $30
  • Utilities expense $10
  • Wages and salaries $60       <u>($100)</u>

Income before taxes                         $20

Tax expenses                              <u> ($4.20)</u>

Net income                                   $15.80

A multi-step income statement is more complex, since operating revenues and costs are reported first in order to determine operating income, then other revenues and expenses are introduced and income before taxes is calculated.

8 0
3 years ago
On October 1, Company B records 1 year of prepaid rent in an income statement account then adjusts for the unexpired prepaid ren
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

The first journal entry was not the most appropriate, but since the mistake was correctly adjusted at the end of the year, both assets and expenses will be the same whether they did it correctly the first time or they had to adjust a mistake at the end of the year.

E.g. something like this happened

October 1, rent expense for 1 year

Dr Rent expense 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Prepaid rent 10,000

    Cr Rent expense 10,000

they should have recorded it as:

October 1, prepaid rent for 1 year

Dr Prepaid rent 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Rent expense 2,000

    Cr Prepaid rent 2,000

Whichever way you recorded the transactions, the balances a the end of the year would be:

prepaid rent (asset) $10,000

rent expense (expense) $2,000

6 0
3 years ago
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