The tip is $6.21
with that being said, 34.50 + 6.21 = 40.71
the total cost is $40.71
Answer:
12
Step-by-step explanation:
Multiply both sides of the equation by 8/5.
4x-16=32
Move 16 to the other side
4x=32+16
add numbers on the right side
4x=48
divide both sides by 4
x=12
I don't like trying all of them so I will make up my own which will probably be in the answers
so equation is
f(x)=pay
x=hours worked
solve so
f(1)=110
f(2)=130
f(3)=150
f(4)=170
they seem to be increasing in 20 increments so therefor the pay is linked to hours times 20 so that measn that every hour he works, he gets 20 dollars
therefor the answer is f(n+1)=f(n)+20 since we know that 1 hour=$20 so n+1hour=n+$20
the answe ris f(n+1)=f(n)+20
The initial fee of $50 is essentially the y intercept because this is the value when x = 0 (x is the number of labor-hours). So b = 50.
The slope is m = 30 because each increase of 1 hour leads to the cost bumping up by 30 dollars. In other words, slope = rise/run = (change in cost)/(change in hours) = 30/1
So we plug m = 30 and b = 50 into the y = mx+b formula to get y = 30x+50
Replace y with f(x) to get f(x) = 30x+50
The linear function for the cost is f(x) = 30x+50
Note: Some books may use other letters (instead of x and f(x)), but the idea is still the same
Once you know the cost function, you replace x with 4.5 to find the amount it will cost to have a painter work for 4.5 hours.
f(x) = 30x+50
f(4.5) = 30*4.5+50
f(4.5) = 135+50
f(4.5) = 185
It will cost 185 dollars to have the painter work for 4.5 hours
The firs term
A(1)=-6+(1-1)(6)
A(1)=-6+(0)(6)
A(1)=-6
The fourh term
A(n)=-6+(n-1)(6)
A(4)=-6+(4-1)(6)
A(4)=-6+(3)(6)
A(4)=-6+18
A(4)=12
The tenth term
A(10)=-6+(10-1)(6)
A(10)=-6+(9)(6)
A(10)=-6+54
A(10)=48
Answer:
D. -6,12,48
