1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
salantis [7]
3 years ago
5

Why were the Spanish able to easily conquer the Inca?

History
1 answer:
Xelga [282]3 years ago
6 0
The Spanish<span> explorer Francisco Pizarro </span>invaded<span> the </span>Incan Empire<span> in 1532, seeking riches. The </span>Inca<span> had already had some contact with Europeans, and many had died of European diseases. That with the fact that the Incan empire didn't have much weapons like guns killed them off.</span>
You might be interested in
Why did Great Britain and France fail at avoiding war?
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Selfishness, cowardice, laziness.

Winston Churchill was screaming against what they were doing, but they thought that bad Adolfie would be satisfied if they let him swallow Austria and Checkoslovackia  

When it was clear that he wasn't, they had to call Churchill to clean the mess they had done.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
What is a monster? As we saw it's a despicable being or a deformed creature.
timofeeve [1]
A monster is a imaginary creature yet it can also be used for based off something big, ugly, and frightening. 
8 0
3 years ago
At different places on earth, depending on elevation, air pressure varies. Which of the following reflects air pressure at any p
galben [10]
B) carbon diooxide levels of air!
7 0
4 years ago
Why were European countries not able to colonize Africa until the 1800s?
erica [24]

Answer:

The European countries were able to colonise African countries rapidly because there were rivalries between African leaders. These kings and chiefs were competing with each other to be the richest and most powerful within their tribes.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What was the comprehensive list of existing Roman laws created by Justinian I called? English civil law, Roman law, Justinian Co
nignag [31]

Answer:

Justinian I – Emperor who ruled the Eastern Ro- man Empire, or Byzantine Empire, from 527–565 ce and ordered all Roman law compiled into a multi-part work referred to as the compilation of Justinian and later named the Corpus iuris civilis.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Why did Roosevelt feel need to expand justices of the Supreme Court
    15·1 answer
  • When did most delegates sign the declaration of independence
    11·1 answer
  • By what percent In 2009 impaired drivers caused of all traffic fatalities in children age 14 and younger
    12·2 answers
  • Under which dynasty did trade on the Silk Road reach its peak?
    13·2 answers
  • I'n what area of europe were the majority of Warsaw Pact countries
    14·1 answer
  • Identify two qualifications of
    9·1 answer
  • Ernest Hemmingway was a great writer of the 1920s who wrote about "heroic
    11·1 answer
  • 2. Define Humanism. Why is it important?
    12·2 answers
  • Who was the first black president
    11·2 answers
  • How did the Mexican Revolution (1910 and beyond) challenge the existing political and social order in Mexico?
    10·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!