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JulsSmile [24]
3 years ago
14

Why did the ottoman empire not engage in industrialization until many years after the industrial resolution had begun in western

Europe?
History
1 answer:
harina [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is)Because the state collected tariffs on all good passing through the Empire, the imperial government itself lost vast amounts of its revenue. In addition, the Ottomans did not industrialize in the way Europeans were doing in the eighteenth century.

Explanation:

mark me brainliest pls!!

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