The future worth (F) of the current investment (P) given that the interest (i) is compounded can be calculated by the formula,
F = P x (1 + i)^n
where n is the number of years. Substituting the given values to solve for P,
1000 = P x (1 + 0.115)^6
The value of P is approximately $520.42.
Answer:
a=
b =
Step-by-step explanation:
- By equating coefficients on both sides of respective terms.
Given,
= 
+ 
<u>Now take </u><u>lcm</u><u> on right hand side </u>
=
By equating coefficients of respective terms
x-4 = a(x-2)+b(x+9)
a+b=1 -----1 ; 9b-2a=-4 -----2
Substitute b=1-a in 2
9(1-a)-2a=-4
11a=9+4=13
a=
As b=1-a=1- =
12) 2×2×2×2×2
14)(3/5) write it 4 times
16)2×2×2×5×5 and the rest I'm not sure but you should try using photomath :) it gives u the answers and the work!
7. There are no solutions.
8. All real numbers are solutions.
9. s≤−2
Answer:
We are given that she ordered a hot drink:
Customers that ordered a hot drink 5 + 48 + 22 = 75
THEN we are told it was a medium (medium hot = 48)
So the probability = 48 / 75 = .64
Step-by-step explanation:
