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3 years ago

Holding cash simply as a financial reserve is referred to as the ____ motive.

1 answer:

7 0

<span>Holding cash simply as a financial reserve is referred to as the "speculative" motive.

</span>Speculative motive refers to a strategy that is utilized by financial specialists/merchants to hold money to make the best utilization of any speculation opportunity that emerges later on. Keeping all cash contributed doesn't appear to be appealing constantly. Keeping up a decent lot of liquidity in one's portfolio is one of the best needs for n investor.
For the most part, financial specialists keep a decent measure of such money with them in order to acquire higher benefits.

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Nina [5.8K]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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3 years ago

Read 3 more answers

Princess, who resides in the 2nd Circuit, recently found a circuit court case that is favorable to her income tax research quest

lapo4ka [179]

The correct answer is C) 2nd Circuit or the Federal Circuit.

Princess, who resides in the 2nd Circuit, recently found a circuit court case that is favorable to her income tax research question. The circuits that she would prefer to have issued the opinion are the 2nd Circuit or the Federal Circuit.

Princess has to go to the 2nd Circuit Court of Appeals that is located in Manhattan, New York, at the Thurgood Marshall US Courthouse. It exercises federal jurisdiction in six districts of the states of Vermont, New York, and Connecticut. The 2nd Circuit Court of Appeals was established by Congress in 1891.

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3 years ago

Details of invoices for purchases of merchandise are as follows: Merchandise Freight Terms Returns and Allowances(a) $2,800 $45

Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

A.$2,619

B.$6,800

C.$839

D.$495

Explanation:

Calculation to Determine the amount to be paid in full settlement of each of the invoices,

a) (2,800-200)*99%+45

=2,600*99%+45

=2,574+45

= $2,619

b) (7,600-800)

= $6,800

c)$1,400 – $600 – $16 + $55

=$784+$55

= $839

d)$500 –$5 = $495

6 0

2 years ago

Venzuela Company’s net income for 2020 is $50,000. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 1,000 options issue

jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

GIVEN:

options issued = 1000

exercise per share = $6

market price = $20

net income = $50000

a) Diluted earnings per share

= (Total income - preference dividends) /( outstanding shares + diluted shares)

Amount paid towards shares = Options issued * Exercise price per share = 1,000 * 6 = $ 6,000

Value of options = Amount paid towards shares / Current market price = $ 6,000 /$ 20 = 300

Diluted shares = Options issued - value of options = 1000 - 300 = 700

So Diluted Earnings per share = ( 50,000) / ( 10,000 +700) = $ 4.67 per share.

b) Calculation of diluted shares 700 (same as above )

Weighted average for the period holding i.e, 3 months = 700 *3/12 = 175 shares increased during the period.

Diluted EPS = 50,000 /(10,000 +175) = $ 4.91 per share

5 0

2 years ago

If your investment doubles in 6 3/4 years, what approximate annual rate of return would you have earned? If you could earn an

Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

annual rate of return = 10.67 %

time required for investment double = 9.60 years

Explanation:

given data

investment doubles = 6 $\frac{3}{4}$ year

annual rate = 7.50%

solution

we get here annual rate of return by rule no 72 that is

investment doubles = $\frac{72}{annual\ return \ rate }$ ........1

put here value

annual rate of return = $\frac{72}{6\frac{3}{4} }$

annual rate of return = 10.67 %

so time required for investment double by rule 72

time required for double investment = $\frac{72}{7.50}$

so time required for investment double = 9.60 years

6 0

2 years ago