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Maslowich
4 years ago
10

What happens when the Federal reserve buys a treasury bond

Business
1 answer:
alukav5142 [94]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

If the Federal Reserve buys bonds in the open market, it increases the money supply in the economy by swapping out bonds in exchange for cash to the general public. Conversely, if the Federal Reserve sells bonds, it decreases the money supply by removing cash from the economy in exchange for bonds.

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Mill Co.'s trial balance included the following account balances at December 31, Year 6:
o-na [289]

Answer:

D) $45,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount which is included in the current liability section is shown below:

= Account payable balance + bonds payable -  discount on bonds payable + dividend payable

= $15,000 + $25,000 -  $3,000 + $8,000

= $45,000

The current liability is that liability which is arise for one year. Since, the notes payable is a long term liabilities so we do not consider in the computation part.

4 0
3 years ago
As a medium-sized grocery retailer, your marketing and merchandising teams find themselves at a constant disadvantage when negot
frutty [35]

Hence proved hope it will help you

4 0
4 years ago
Scampini Technologies is expected to generate $200 million in free cash flow next year, and FCF is expected to grow at a constan
natulia [17]

Answer:

The stock's value per share is $90.09.

Explanation:

In order to estimate the value of the share, first we have to estimate the value of the company at year 0 (today). We start from the FCF, that is equal to 200,000,000 (year 1). The formula of the company's value is FCF * (1+g)/(WACC-g), where g is the constant rate of grow (5%). So, the value of the company at year 1 is 200,000,000 * (1,05)/(0,11-0,05) = 3,500,000,000.

The next step is to obtain the value at year 0, with the formula Year.1.value / (1+WACC). So 3,500,000,000 / (1,11) = 3,153,153,153.15

Finally, the stock's value per share is Year.0.value/stock = 3,153,153,153.15/35,000,000 = 90.09

5 0
3 years ago
During its first year of operations, a company has credit sales of $250,000 and cash sales of $100,000. By the end
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

Debit : Bad Debts = $4,200

Credit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $4,200.

Explanation:

The question states that bad debts are expected to be 6% of the accounts receivables. Credit sales were $250,000 of which $180,000 was collected. Hence, accounts receivables is ($250,000 - $180,000) = $70,000.

This means that the allowance for doubtful debts is it is: $70,000 x 6% = $4,200.

An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. The 6% may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.

An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement.

The entry to record the above transaction is:

Debit : Bad Debts = $4,200

Credit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $4,200.

When the amount is officially declared uncollectible, the allowance for doubtful debts account will be debited and the accounts receivables account will be credited.

5 0
3 years ago
Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. Andrew sells ball pens that have a radium body. This is the most
choli [55]

Answer:

I believe it could Profit or Self Profit Strategy.

Explanation:

Hope this helps : )

5 0
3 years ago
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