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alukav5142 [94]
3 years ago
5

What term refers to the process in which two or more parties make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in order to reach an ag

reement?
a. integration
b. distribution
c. negotiation
d. conflict
e. none of these
Business
1 answer:
zhuklara [117]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C, negotiation

Explanation:

Negotiation according to oxford dictionary is a discussion aimed at reaching an agreement. It means that before an agreement is reached, a lot of talking has to happen in order to arrive at the best situation for all parties.

In business, negotiation is involves parties making offers, conter offers over amd over till a conclusion is reached that works fine for all parties and necessary documents are exchanged.

Cheers

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Scranton, Inc. reports net income of $260,000 for the year ended December 31. It also reports $100,700 depreciation expense and
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$399,950

Explanation:

The computation of cash provided (used) in operating activities using the indirect method is shown below:-

Cash flow from operating activities

Net income reported           $260,000

Add:  depreciation expenses  $100,700

Less: gain on sale of equipment -$6,500

Add: decrease in accounts receivables $41,500

Add:  increase in accounts payable $18,750

Less: decrease in wages payable -$14,500

Cash flow from operating activities $399,950

We simply added the cash inflows and deduct the cash outflows to reach out the operating activities

5 0
3 years ago
Sheridan Corp. paid a dividend of $2.30 yesterday. The company's dividend is expected to grow at a steady rate of 5 percent for
qaws [65]

Answer:

$24.15

Explanation:

The formula for determining is the present value of a cash flow in perpetuity provided below:

share price=last dividend*(1+terminal dividend growth rate)/(required rate of return-terminal dividend growth rate)

last dividend=$2.30

terminal dividend growth rate=5%

required rate of return=15%

share price=$2.30*(1+5%)/(15%-5%)

share price=$2.415 /10%

share price=$24.15

6 0
3 years ago
Weekly demand for tennis balls at The Racquet Club is normally distributed , with a mean of 35 cases and a standard deviation of
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

a-The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b- The probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

Explanation:

a

The weekly average profit for the simulation is given where first the values are simulated using R which is given as below:

x<-round(rnorm(n,m,s))

Here

  • round converts all the values of the simlation to integer.
  • rnorm is the command for simulation
  • n is the number of values which is 52 in this case
  • m is the mean of the values which is 35
  • s is the value of standard deviation which is 5 cases.

The values of x are as follows

[1] 36 49 30 29 34 36 32 28 32 29 32 27 40 32 30 37 43 30 42 30 31 34 36 38 28 29 32 42 36 35

[31] 37 41 34 39 37 46 34 44 45 41 41 29 36 38 35 32 36 39 30 38 40 27

Now using these values, the average of the simulation values is cacluated as follows:

mean(x)

35.3462

Now using this with the value of profit of $50 gives:

Average Profit=$50 x 35.3462

Average Profit=$1767.31

The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b-

First number of cases are required so that the value will be greater than 2000 it is given as

Number of cases=2000/50=40

So firstly the Z-score is calculated which is as below:

Z=\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\Z=\dfrac{40-35}{5}\\Z=1

Now the probability is given as

P(X\geq 40)=P(Z\geq 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)

The value of P(Z<1) is calculated from the table which is given as

0.84134

So the equation becomes

P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-0.8413\\P(X\geq 40)=0.1587

So the probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

4 0
3 years ago
Riley says that the present value of $700 one year from today if the interest rate is 6 percent isless than the present value of
devlian [24]

Answer:

A) Both Riley and Anh are correct.

Explanation:

to see who is right we can calculate:

PV = FV / (1 + r)ⁿ

FV = PV x (1 + r)ⁿ

Riley's statement:

PV = $700 / (1 + 6%) = $660.38

PV = $700 / (1 + 3%)² = $659.82

Riley is right

Anh's statement:

FV = $700 x (1 + 6%) = $742

FV = $700 x (1 + 3%)² = $742.63

Anh is right

They are both right due to compound interest, since compound interest means that the interest earned will also earn more interest.

6 0
3 years ago
Dave works as a traveling pharmacist. He does not work at one pharmacy but fills in all over the country whenever another pharma
Anon25 [30]

Answer: This is an example of a RPh on the Go.

Explanation: RPh on the Go is a national health protection services company placing druggist and apothecary technicians into apothecary careers crosswise the country.

3 0
3 years ago
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