Answer:
Comparative advantage
Explanation:
This concept of economics is comparative advantage that means one country has advantage of producing same product at lower cost than other. In this question China has comparative advantage over USA,
This may be due to different reasons.
1. Population of China is greater than USA, that is why employees are willing to work on low salaries in China as compared to salaries are offered in the US.
2. China is comparatively better in manufacturing industry as of with USA.
Answer:
a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset.
Explanation:
A protective put strategy is a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset. It is a risk management strategy that makes use of options contracts which are employed by investors to protect or guard their investments against a potential loss in stocks or assets such as commodities, indexes and currencies. The protective put strategy helps to mitigate or limit risk associated with buying stocks for the first time.
Generally, the value of the underlying asset is anticipated to decrease by the buyers while the value of the underlying asset is anticipated by sellers of call options to also decrease.
Hence, considering the prospective option holder, when the exercise price is higher, it means that the call options are worth less. Also, when the exercise price is higher, it means that the put options are worth more.
I depends on how much they charge a month for not paying the bill
Answer:
financial advisor
Explanation:
I belilve its the right answer
Answer:the appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense=$870
Explanation:
Given that for Lightning Inc., at the end of December:
Credit Sales $60,000
Accounts Payable 10.000
Accounts Receivable 7.000
Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts 400
creditCash Sales 20,000
Using the aging method and estimates it states that the following would be uncollectible
1. 2% of accounts receivable not yet due, $3500 which is
2 % x 3500= $70
2. 10% of receivables less than 30 days past due, $2000 which is
10% x 2000=$200
3. 40% of receivables greater than 30 days past due,$1500 which is
40% x$1500=$600
Appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense=
Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts =$70+$200+$600==$870
Therefore, Bad debt expense =$870
Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts=$870
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