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mash [69]
3 years ago
8

What is a benefit on which you pay no taxes?

Business
1 answer:
frez [133]3 years ago
7 0
I dont really think there is a benefit. 
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"The company will pay a dividend of $15 per share 10 years from today and will increase the dividend by 5 percent per year there
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Current Share price= $114.21

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique adopted to detremine the value of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows that would arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return (discount rate)

The model is premised on the concept of the time value of money. The idea that $1 today is not the same as $1 tomorrow. The $1 of today is worth more than that of tomorrow; because of the opportunity to earn interest. So to determine the worth of a future cash flow, we compute its worth today- its present value.

The Present Value of a future cash flow is the amount that needs to be invested today at a particular rate of return to equal the same cash flow in the future. Present value means the value in year 0 or now

The process of calculating the present value of a future sum is called discounting. So to calculate the current stock price in this question, we shall discount the future dividends using the required rate of return and then add them together.

So if an asset (e.g a stock) promises some cash flows in the future, those cash flows need to be brought to their present values and then be added to arrive at the value of the asset

In this question, the cash flows are the dividends as given and the rate of return (discount rate) is 15%

So we apply this model as follows:

Step 1 : PV of div from year 1 to 10  =  15× ((1-1.15)^(-10))/0.15)  =  75.282

Step 2:PV (in year 10)of div from year 11 onward=(15×1.05)/(0.15-0.05)=  157.5

Step 3:PV(in year 0) of div from year 11 onward =  157.5 × (1.15)^ (-10) =  38.93

Current Share price= $75.282 + $38.93 = $114.21

<em>Note:</em><em> step 3 is important because the the cash flows from year 11 onward were discounted to arrive at their values in year 10. Since we are interested in the current price i.e year 0 value, it is important that we re-discount again to bring them to their PV in year 0.</em>

8 0
3 years ago
Production-constrained decision. (You may select more than one answer. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

D. unanswered Sales revenue at split-off point.

Explanation:

Product contribution margin is the economic term used to describe a situation where a product sold generates revenue large enough to pay for all its production and distribution costs and expenses and still generate a profit for the company. In other words, this term refers to the money that is left over from the revenue generated from the sale of the product, after all of your production expenses have been paid. Sales revenue not being answered at the point of separation.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2012, Piper Co., purchased a machine (its only depreciable asset) for $600,000. The machine has a five-year life,
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

Piper should report $308,000 as net income for the year . Option C

Explanation:

Accumulated Depreciation till 2014 = [$600,000×(5+4+3)] ÷ 15 = $ 480,000

Book Value at beginning 2015 = $600,000 - $480,000 = $120,000

Depreciation Expense in 2015 = $120,000 ÷ 2 = $60,000

Net Income before depreciation & taxes = $ 500,000

Depreciation = $ 60,000

Electronic Benefits Transfer = Net Income before depreciation & taxes - Depreciation

= $ 500,000  - $ 60,000  

=$ 440000

Tax Expenses = $440,000 × 30% = $132,000

Net Income =$ 308,000

4 0
3 years ago
Performance Bicycle Company makes steel and titanium handle bars for bicycles. It requires approximately 1 hour of labor to make
alexdok [17]

Answer:

Overhead cost allocated to steel bars = $4.6 \times 6,600 = $30,360

Explanation:

Provided information,

Two products manufactured

Steel Bars and Titanium bars

Number of hours = 1 hour each

Total units produced

Steel = 6,600

Titanium = 3,400

Total hours @ 1 hour for each = 6,600 + 3,400 = 10,000

Total Setup cost = $46,000

Cost per hour based on direct labor hours = $46,000/10,000 = $4.6

Overhead cost allocated to steel bars = $4.6 \times 6,600 = $30,360

7 0
3 years ago
Compton Company expects the following total sales: Month Sales March $ 20,000 April $ 10,000 May $ 34,000 June $ 15,000 The comp
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

The accounts receivable balance on May 31 is $17850

Explanation:

First we need to determine the amount of credit sales for the month of May. The credit sales for May will be 70% of the total sales for May. Thus, the credit sales for May are,

Credit sales- May = 34000 * 0.7   = $23800

The accounts receivable balance at the end of May will contain the amount due from credit sales that are made in May that are still not collected and will be collected in the next month as per the company's policy.

Accounts receivable at the end of May = 23800 * 0.75 = $17850

8 0
3 years ago
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