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muminat
4 years ago
13

The partnership of Frick, Wilson, and Clarke has elected to cease all operations and liquidate its business property. A balance

sheet drawn up at this time shows the following account balances: Cash $ 60,000 Liabilities $ 43,000 Noncash assets 207,000 Frick, capital (60%) 120,000 Wilson, capital (20%) 33,000 Clarke, capital (20%) 71,000 Total assets $ 267,000 Total liabilities and capital $ 267,000
Part A Prepare a predistribution plan for this partnership
Part B The following transactions occur in liquidating this business: Distributed cash based on safe capital balances immediately to the partners. Liquidation expenses of $10,000 are estimated as a basis for this computation. Sold noncash assets with a book value of $90,000 for $60,000. Paid all liabilities. Distributed cash based on safe capital balances again. Sold remaining noncash assets for $49,000. Paid actual liquidation expenses of $8,000 only. Distributed remaining cash to the partners and closed the financial records of the business permanently. Produce a final statement of liquidation for this partnership using the predistribution plan to determine payments of cash to partners based on safe capital balances.

Business
1 answer:
Charra [1.4K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

PART A:

For preparing the predistribution plan we first caluclate the order of partnership elimination based on their capital accounts and the profit sharing ratio.

The lowest capital contributor is eliminated first and so on. Which is attached in figure 1

Then we prepared the predistribution plan which is attached in figure 2

PART B

The statement is attached in figure 3

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Answer:

  • <u><em>Option B. $1,025 a month for 10 years.</em></u>

Explanation:

Calculate the present value of each option:

     \text{Monthly rate: } 6.8\%/12 = 0.068/12 = 0.005\overline 6

Formula:

        PV=C\times \bigg[\dfrac{1}{r}-\dfrac{1}{r(1+r)^t}\bigg]

Where:

  • PV is the present value of the constant monthly payments
  • r is the monthly rate
  • t is the number of moths

<u>1. Option A will provide $1,500 a month for 6 years. </u>

         PV=$\ 1,500\times \bigg[\dfrac{1}{(0.005\overline 6}-\dfrac{1}{0.005\overline 6(1+0.005\overline 6)^{(6\times12)}}\bigg]

         PV=\$ 88,479.23

<u>2. Option B will pay $1,025 a month for 10 years. </u>

         PV=$\ 1,025\times \bigg[\dfrac{1}{(0.005\overline 6}-\dfrac{1}{0.005\overline 6(1+0.005\overline 6)^{(10\times12)}}\bigg]

         PV=\$ 89,068.22

<u>3. Option C offers $85,000 as a lump sum payment today. </u>

<u></u>

  • PV = $85,000
<h2 /><h2> Conclusion:</h2>

The present value of the<em> option B, $1,025 a month for 10 years</em>, has a the greatest present value, thus since he is only concerned with the <em>financial aspects of the offier</em>, this is the one he should select.

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The marginal impact of overall medical spending on health status is ________in the United States. The marginal impact of prevent
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C - larger; smaller

Explanation:

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The marginal effects of overall medical spending on health status is larger in the US. The marginal effects of preventative care spending on health is likely smaller than for overall spending.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

The reason is that corporate level strategy helps in managing the all of the business units of the company which means that the strategy is to maximize the gains arising by increasing the effectiveness and efficiency of the business operations of the business units. So the question certainly would include the decision of whether or not we should close a business unit or that we should continue with it. It would also question whether the group business is well managed or there are any other better alternatives as well.

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Explanation:

The computation of the value of the property today is shown below:

First the present value for 5 years is

Year Cash flows    Discount factor      Present value

1 $150,000  0.925925926 $138,888.89  

2 $150,000  0.85733882         $128,600.82  

3 $150,000  0.793832241         $119,074.84  

4 $150,000  0.735029853         $110,254.48  

5 $150,000  0.680583197          $102,087.48  

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The discount factor is

= 1 ÷ (1 + rate)^years  

And, the formula of future value is

Future value = Present value × (1 + rate)^number of years

$1,250,000 = Present value × (1 + 0.08)^5

$1,250,000 = Present value × 1.469328077

So, the present value is $850,729

Now the today value of the property is

= $598,906.51 + $850,729

= $1,449,635.50  

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