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S_A_V [24]
3 years ago
10

Please help ASAP ill appreciate it a lot

Mathematics
1 answer:
trapecia [35]3 years ago
6 0

the correct answer is 5/12

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The algebraic expression that represents 2 less than 3 of n is:
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

Option A. 3(n-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

"2 less" - "subtract 2"

Then 3 of n - 3n

Hope helps -

7 0
2 years ago
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Jesus joseph maryian christ, what is this math problem ? 25 points
maria [59]

Answer:

1,075,920,000,000 km³

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3 years ago
The sum of a number and 3 is 8
Doss [256]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
A candle on a table is 6 inches tall and burns at a rate of .8 inches per hour. How many hours will it take for the candle to bu
Vlada [557]

Answer:

6 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

6 inches burns at rate .8 inches in 1 hour

to be 1.2 inches has to burn 6 -1.2 = 4.8 inches of the candle

4.8 inches / .8 inches in 1 hour  = 6 hours

7 0
3 years ago
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