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Contact [7]
3 years ago
8

Remember, you must explain if you agree or disagree with the statement. You need to give evidence

History
1 answer:
Angelina_Jolie [31]3 years ago
3 0

<em>I agree because imagine a war without weapons, people will be killing with bare hands. And it's not like a soldier fighting for their country will be willing to accept that with no weapons mean no war. It's human nature. Take into thought if there was a war, no weapons, both sides killing with their bear hands, now introduce a pistol, changes the whole tide of war. Better the weapons, the better the results.</em> <u>ex. USA vs Russia. Russia invents trenches to slow down the enemy because the US has developed some kind of weapon. US comes in with Flamethrowers. Who wins? The Japanese used a Type 3 heavy machine gun. This gun needed to be mantled on a leveled surface and had not only a limited range but a limited movement. The gun was extremely heavy.  John Browning was the US's gun manufacturer. He created The Browning LMG. A light weight machine gun that has amazing range and damage but heats up quick. In the tide of war, the US won because of this gun and then the M16 and M14 were created.  </u>Guns were a necesity to win the war. as you can see, thoses who have the best guns, clearly won. Once everyone had the same guns, now it's the men...

This can be your beginning ideas. <em>hook, </em><u>examples, </u>reasons

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2 years ago
When the German Air Force bombed Great Britain, the British were able to hold them off during the Battle of Britain because of t
Gre4nikov [31]
More powerful air force radar and message decoding technologies.

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As for message decoding technologies, the code-cracking machine developed by Alan Turing had an impact particularly on naval battles in the Atlantic between the Germans and the Allies.  Once they developed the ability to decode German messages, the British had to proceed carefully and not act on every military message or the Germans would have suspected their encoded messages were being hacked.
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3 years ago
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What does the figurative phrase "as a pine or a poplar falls on the hills before the
Setler79 [48]

The figurative phrase used in the excerpt means that Sarpedon’s fall resembles a tree falling as it is cut down.

<h3>What is a figurative phrase?</h3>

A figurative phrase means any phrase that serves as a figure of speech. For instance, the phrase "as a pine or a poplar falls on the hills before thewoodsman's ax" is a metaphor.

That he was cut with an ax serves as a metaphor for the way he fell, not for why he fell ecactly.

In conclusion, the phrase means Sarpedon’s fall resembles a tree falling as it is cut down.

Read more about figurative phrase

<em>brainly.com/question/980024</em>

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3 years ago
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jeka57 [31]

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Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Which statement is true about the powers of patricians and plebeians in the Roman Republic? (1 point)
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Patricians never allowed plebeians to influence the government

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plebeians couldn't hold public office

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