In the capital asset pricing model, an increase in inflationary expectations will be reflected by a parallel shift upward in the security market line.
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which additionally modifies the risk premium, explains the link between a security's projected return and beta model.
The link between systematic risk and anticipated return for assets, particularly stocks, is described by the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The CAPM is a tool that is frequently used in finance to price hazardous securities and calculate projected returns for assets based on their risk and cost of capital.
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Answer:
0.08 per play
Explanation:
The computation of the gain offense average yards per day is shown below:
= (Probability runs - offense passes with probability) ÷ two
= (0.58 - 0.42) ÷ 2
= 0.16 ÷ 2
= 0.08 per play
Simply we consider the runs probability and the offense passes with probability so that the correct yard per play can come
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer: A. Women are increasingly part of formerly all-male markets.
Explanation: In the past, male markets were more of targeted group whereas now, more women are increasing their presence in the marketplace. Due to the overall increase of women being present in the marketplace, all-male markets are not as common.
1)The cm ratio<span> is the difference between a company's sales and variable expenses (expenses proportional to units produced), expressed as a <span>percentage. Hence, we have that the costs of the product per unit are 70%= 100%-30% of the unit income, thus they are 40*70%=28$. Thus, the variable expenses per unit are 28$.
2) In order to break even, they have to make profit of 180000$ from sales. Each unit gives a profit of 12$=40$-28$ (unit profit). Hence, in order to make a profit of 180000$, the have to sell 180000/12=15000 units. Those units will bring in sales of 40*15000=600000$. We also have that if the company wants to make a net profit of 60000$, the profit from the unit sales needs to be 240000$ in total. Hence, they will need 240000/12=20000 units and the sales will be 40*20000=800000$ at that point.
3) Let us calculate the new cost. It is obviously 28-4=24$. The new profit margin per unit is 40-24=16$. Hence, to break even this time they will need only 180000/16=11250 units. They will be sold for 40*11250=450000$ in total. To make that additional profit of 60000$, they will need to sell 60000/16 more units, hence 3750 more units. This means that they need to do an additional 150000 dollars in sales. With the new variable cost, to achieve profit of 60000 they need to sell 11250+3750=15000 units and they will cost 600000$
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The following statement "the present value of a cash flow will never be greater than the future dollar amount of the cash flow" is true.
Cash flow is the net balance of money coming into and going out of a firm at a certain moment in time. A firm continuously has cash coming in and going out. For instance, money leaves the company and goes to its suppliers when a retailer buys inventory.
The expenses made as part of daily operations are included in the cash flow from operations. These cash outflows include things like rent, utilities, wages, and the cost of products sold. When a corporation operates heavily on the seasonal cycle, cash outflows might vary greatly.
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