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bagirrra123 [75]
3 years ago
9

A pound of coffee beans yields 60 cups of coffee (4 cups = 1 qt). how many milliliters of coffee can be obtained from 1.0 g of c

offee beans?
Mathematics
1 answer:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
5 0
We can easily convert grams to pounds and find that 1 g of coffee beans is 0.00220462 pounds. Now we can multiply that value with 60 cups to find how many cups it makes.

We find that it makes 0.1322772 cups.

Then we know that 236.588 milliliters are in a cup. We multiply the value of the coffee available with 1 g of coffee beans (in cups - of course) and get the value the question asked :

0.1322772 * 236.588 milliliters

The answer is 31.2951981936 milliliters!

Hope this helps!

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Oxana [17]

Answer:

Option A is correct.

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression

\frac{5}{x}=\frac{4x+1}{x^2}

Solving the rational function

\frac{5}{x}=\frac{4x+1}{x^2}

Apply fraction across multiply: if \frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d}\mathrm{\:then\:}a\cdot \:d=b\cdot \:c

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Subtract x(4x+1) from both sides

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Simplify

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Factor x² - x = x(x-1)

so

x(x-1) = 0

Using the zero factor principle

if ab=0, then a=0 or b=0 (or both a=0 and b=0)

x=0\quad \mathrm{or}\quad \:x-1=0

Thus, the solution to the equation is:

x=0,\:x=1

But, it is clear that if we substitute x = 0, the equation becomes undefined because we can not have the denominator to be 0.

In other words, the equation is undefined for x = 0

Thus, x = 0 is an extraneous solutions.

Therefore, option A is correct.

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mote1985 [20]

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The computation of the amount for traveling 25 miles is shown below:

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