Answer:
The one time fee that the owner should charge is $1764.71
Explanation:
To calculate the one time fee, we take this as a perpetuity and calculate the value or price of the perpetuity based on the fututre cash flows discounted to today's price by a certain dicount rate.
The discount rate is taken as 8.5% which is also the market interests rate.
The formula for the value/price of the perpetuity is,
Value / Price = Cash flow / Discount rate
Value / Price = 150 / 0.085
Value / Price = $1764.705 rounded off to $1764.71
Answer:
C. 7.81%
Explanation:
Stock A and Stock B expected Return shall be calculated using the following formula:
Stock A/B expected [email protected]*Return at [email protected]*Return at [email protected]*Return at Recession.
Stock A return=0.21*18.9%+0.74*15.8%+0.05*-24.6%
=14.43%
Stock B return=0.21*9.7%+0.74*7.6%+0.05*4.2%
=7.87%
Market risk premium=(Stock A Return- Stock B return)/0.84
Market risk premium=(14.43%-7.87%)/0.84=7.81%
So Based on the above explanation, the answer shall be C. 7.81%
Answer: An increase in government spending
Explanation:
Currency appreciation is an increase in the worth of one currency against the value of another currency. Due to the appreciation of a currency, imports get cheaper.
In a small open economy, the appreciation of the real exchange rate can be caused by an increase in government spending as this puts pressure on domestic currency to appreciate, which leads to current account deterioration.
Answer:
No, it will not be classified on cash flow statement.
Explanation:
In the given case, stocks are issued in exchange of equipment. Assuming no cash is involved even for the balancing amount.
Since, cash flow statement records all transactions involving cash the exchange of stock issued for equipment, is nowhere involving cash thus, it will not be depicted on cash flow statement.
Final Answer
No it will not be classified on cash flow statement.
