The answer is False.
<span>In my opinion, it was not the intention of
England and France. The two nations had been in war because of the Napoleonic War,
England had only tried to protect its colony in the northern part of the US.
However, because of the constant warring, it had the economy of the US because
both nations had been violating the marital rule of many neutral countries.</span>
Answer:
Written sources and anthropology
Im pretty sure its B. the south more heavily depended on slave farming iirc
The statement that correctly describes the beginning of the decline of the Roman Empire would be "<span>a. Very few Roman emperors in the centuries after Augustus were competent rulers; most were insane, greedy, or both," since this led to a loss of power consolidation and insurrections on the "edges" of the empire. </span>
