Convenience sampling is used, because the population is taken from a sample that easy to reach
Answer: 1 year and 6 months
Explanation:
The cash flows are as follows,
Year 0 = ($2,500)
Year 1 = $1,500
Year 2 = $1,500
Year 3 = $1,500
Payback period is the time it will take to break even the intial investment (In this question the initial investment is $2,500)
The sum of the cashflows of year1 and year2 is equal to $3,000
which means that the payback period is somewhere bbetween year 1 and year2
1500/3000 = 0.5 year or 6 months
the total payback period is 1 year and 6 months
The inventory level will be used by an inventory
manager to regulate the optimal time for manufacturing, if they are handling
a manufacturer's warehouse, or to demand more if the product is being stored as
stock at a store.
To solve this:
Get first the Current Assets this solved by multiplying the
current liabilities to the current ratio.
CA = $500 (1.5) = $750
Then get the inventory level by multiplying the current
asset to the product of the current liabilities and quick ratio.
Inventory level = $750 (500 x 1.1) = $412,500
Answer:
Ratio will be 0.92
So option (A) will be the correct option
Explanation:
We have given net cash flow from operating activities = $37570
So net operating cash flow = $37570
Current liabilities at the bugging of the year = $38400
Current liabilities at the end of the year = $43200
So average current liabilities 
We have to find the ratio of operating cash flow to current liabilities
So ratio will be 
So option (A) will be the correct option
Answer:
$4620
Explanation:
Activity method based on hours worked = (hours worked that year / total hours of the machine) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value)
33,000 / 2000,000) x ($35,000 - $7000) = $4620
