All categories

3 years ago

ANSWER ASAP PLEASE

Mathematics

2 answers:

Verdich [7]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

a -i did the quiz

Step-by-step explanation:

Alenkinab [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The answer is the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

find x please help me this is due soon and I don’t know what to do

anastassius [24]

Answer:

116

Step-by-step explanation:

a line is 180 degrees so subtract 64 and you get 116, that is your angle

Given: these two lines are parrallel cut by a transversal, 4 is 64 degrees

because 4 is given we know 6 is also 64 becasue they are alternative interior angles

all straight lines measure to 180 degrees so 3 and 5 become 116 because 180-64=116 (we also know these lines are parallel becasue 4 and 5 are supplementary, they add up to 180 as well.)

becasue 5 is 116 8 needs to be 64 and becasue 8 is 64 to equal 180 7 needs to be 116 (again, they need to add up to 180 becasue they are a straight line)

7 0

3 years ago

A simple random sample (SRS) of 150 is taken from a population with a 0.6 proportion of success. An independent SRS of 250 is ta

Virty [35]

Answer:

$SE_{\hat p_1 -\hat p_2}= \sqrt{\frac{0.6(1-0.6)}{150}+\frac{0.3(1-0.3)}{250}}= 0.0494$

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we have the following data:

$n_1 =150$ represent the random sample 1 selected

$\hat p_1 =0.6$ represent the proportion of success for the sample 1 selected

$n_2 =250$ represent the random sample 2 selected

$\hat p_2 =0.3$ represent the proportion of success for the sample 2 selected

We know for this case that we can use the normal approximation since for both cases we have:

$n_1 p_1 =90 \geq 10, n_1 (1-p_1)=60 \geq 10$

$n_2 p_2 =75 \geq 10, n_2 (1-p_2)=175 \geq 10$

We have the randomization condition and we assume that the two samples are <10% of the entire population size.

So then we can use the following distribution for the proportions:

$p \sim N( \hat p, \sqrt{\frac{\hat p (1-\hat p)}{n}})$

For this case we want to find the distribution for the difference of these two proportions and we have this:

$p_1 -p_2 \sim N (\hat p_1 -\hat p_2 , \sqrt{\frac{\hat p_1 (1-\hat p_1)}{n_1} +\frac{\hat p_2 (1-\hat p_2)}{n_2}})$

So then the dtandard deviation would be given by:

$SE_{\hat p_1 -\hat p_2}= \sqrt{\frac{0.6(1-0.6)}{150}+\frac{0.3(1-0.3)}{250}}= 0.0494$

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help for brainliest. Hurry

bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You would need to convert the fractions to a denominator of 15 because it's the closest denominator for both.

So 1 and 2/5 can be changed to 1 and 6/15

And 1 and 1/3 can be changed to 5/15

So what you do is multiply both the numerator and denominator by how much you need to multiply to get to 15 and the denominator.

You would then add the fractions, leaving the answer to be 2 and 11/15

So for example 2 * 3 = 6 and 5 * 3 = 15, meaning the fraction would be 6/15

8 0

3 years ago

Susie lost $15 on Monday. Her mom was upset, but gave her another $20. She lost another $13 today. Write an integer to represent

maria [59]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add 13 +15 you get 28$ if we were to write that as an integer out of 20 it would be 28/20 but as an improper fraction, it would need to be simplified into 1 and 8/20 ( 1 8/20)

If you are looking how much she lost out of the 20 she lost today it would be 13/20

Hope this helps

Dont lose ur money

Don’t forget to smash that heart at the bottom <3

Plz mark as brainliest

To do so click the crown above the desired answer which would mark as brainliest

4 0

3 years ago

When dividing decimals what must you do if there's a decimal in the divisor

N76 [4]

You must move the decimal over to the right so it appears to be a whole number.

3 0

4 years ago