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Harman [31]
3 years ago
7

Economic cost can best be defined as: (a) any contractual obligation that results in a flow of money expenditures from an enterp

rise to resource suppliers. (b) any contractual obligation to labor or material suppliers. (c) a payment that must be made to obtain and retain the services of a resource. (d) all costs exclusive of payments to fixed factors of production.
Business
1 answer:
Andreas93 [3]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(d) all costs exclusive of payments to fixed factors of production.

Explanation:

The cost involved in the first three options is considered by economists as accounting cost. Economic cost involves the accounting cost, but it is added to the opportunity cost, which is the remuneration that an economic agent fails to receive for practicing one economic activity and not another.

For example, a business owner has fixed production costs, but it should add to his opportunity cost to be working in that firm rather than another economic activity.

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georgia has an investment portfolio of five stocks. two of the stocks are energy companies, and three are computer manufacturers
erica [24]

Georgia has an investment portfolio of five stocks. Types of risk is georgia's portfolio subject is <u>unsystematic risk</u><u>, because there are only five stocks </u><u>across two sectors</u><u>.</u>

Option D is correct.

<h3>What's an effective portfolio?</h3>

An effective portfolio is either a portfolio that offers the loftiest anticipated return for a given position of threat, or one with the smallest position of threat for a given anticipated return. The line that connects all these effective portfolios is the effective frontier.

<h3>What's unsystematic threat?</h3>

Unsystematic threat is also known as specific threat, meaning the troubles that are unique to a single company or assiduity. still, these pitfalls don't only do one establishment at a time. For illustration, a poor director might pose a specific threat to a single company's stock price.

Learn more about unsystematic risk:

brainly.com/question/17053068

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6 0
1 year ago
The demand for gold toe socks is likely to be more elastic than the demand for power tools because:
Zinaida [17]
<span>The demand for gold toe socks is likely to be more elastic than the demand for power tools because, generally speaking, power tools would be a bit more expensive than gold toe socks would be, and they also may have more substitutes than power tools would have.</span>
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 2019, Wasson Company purchased a delivery vehicle costing $47,550. The vehicle has an estimated 7-year life and a
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

$35,660

Explanation:

the depreciable value of the vehicle = $47,550 - $4,500 = $43,050

depreciation expense per mile driven = $43,050 / 105,000 miles = $0.41

depreciation expense 2019 = $0.41 x 10,500 = $4,305

depreciation expense 2020 = $0.41 x 18,500 = $7,585

accumulated depreciation = $11,890

book value = $47,550 - $11,890 = $35,660

4 0
3 years ago
Keynes believed that Question 8 options: Say's law would hold in a laissez-faire economy. the economy would always be near or on
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

wages and prices are often inflexible in the downward direction.

Explanation:

John Maynard Keynes was a British economist born on the 5th of June, 1883 in Cambridge, England. He was famous for his brilliant ideas on government economic policy and macroeconomics which is known as the Keynesian theory. He later died on the 23rd of April, 1946 in Sussex, England.

Keynes believed that wages and prices are often inflexible in the downward direction.

In Economics, when there are monetary disturbances and a great level of macroeconomic factors in the economy of a particular country, this usually result in prices of goods and services being sticky.

6 0
3 years ago
To take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, an investor would
Svetach [21]

Answer:

The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.

Explanation:

Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.

As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.

Thus, (III) is the correct answer.

5 0
3 years ago
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