Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
Answer:
inbound logistics.
Explanation:
Supply chain management can be defined as the effective and efficient management of the flow of goods and services as well as all of the production processes involved in the transformation of raw materials into finished products that meet the insatiable want and need of the consumers. Generally, the supply chain management involves all the activities associated with planning, execution and supply of finished goods and services to the consumers.
The fundamental principle of supply chain management is the complete collaboration between multiple firms. These multiple firms include a company that is saddled with the responsibility of manufacturing producer), a wholesaler, and a retailer who typically sells the products to the customers or consumers.
Basically, these three (3) firms or individuals are required to collaborate with each other so as to meet the needs of the customers in a timely manner or fashion and at a fair price too.
In this scenario, Dave creates and sells DVDs of his magic tricks.
Lately, Dave has been having some trouble getting his DVDs produced in a timely manner. Thus, of the five (5) primary activities in the value chain, this problem of not producing goods (DVDs) as at when needed by the viewers (end users) is most likely to occur in inbound logistics.
An inbound logistics can be defined as a supply process which relates with receiving, storing or warehousing of raw materials and the distribution of inventory internally.
Transactions will be recorded as follows;
<u>March 1</u>
Debit Cash $21,000
Credit Common Stock $21,000
<u>March 5</u>
Debit Cash $9,000
Credit Notes Payable $9,000
<u>March 10</u>
Debit Construction Equipment $25,000
Credit Cash $25,000
<u>March 15</u>
Debit Advertising Expense $1,100
Credit Cash $1,100
<u>March 22</u>
Debit Accounts Receivable $18,000
Credit Service Revenue $18,000
<u>March 27</u>
Debit Cash $13,000
Credit Accounts Receivable $13,000
<u>March 28</u>
Debit Salaries Expense $6,000
Credit Cash $6,000
<u></u>
Answer: $329.75
Explanation:
The one year subscription is $40 per year. It is estimated that the average age of current subscribers is 38 and they will leave on average to 78. This means that they will leave for,
= 78 - 38
= 40 years
Evans Ltd average interest rate on long-term debt is 12% so this means that we can use that 12% as a discount rate for the cash-flow expected.
I have attached a Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity table to this question. It helps calculate annuities faster.
The above can be treated as an annuity because the $40 is constant every year.
The present value of the $40 over 40 years can be calculated by,
= $40 * present value Interest Factor of an Annuity for 40 years at 12% (look at the table for where 40 years on the y axis intersects with 12% on the x axis)
= $40 * 8.2438 (this is the figure when it is not rounded off to 3 dp)
= $329.752
= $329.75
This shows that the lifetime flat fee of $480 is more profitable for Evans Ltd as opposed to the yearly subscription. They should therefore try to sell more of the lifetime contract with the flat fee.
