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sergij07 [2.7K]
3 years ago
7

Question is from definite integral.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Karolina [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The value of the sum is: $ \frac{\pi}{4} $.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: $ \lim_{n \to \infty} \displaystyle \sum_{k = 1}^ {n} \bigg ( \frac{n}{n^2 + k^2} \bigg ).

Taking $ n^2 $ common outside from the denominator, we have:

$ \bigg ( \frac{n}{(n^2)(1 + (\frac{k^2}{n^2})} \bigg )

\implies\frac{1}{n} .\frac{1}{1 +\big (  \frac  {k^2}{n^2}\big )}

We have the following theorem.

If $f $ is integrable on [0, 1] then $ \int _{0}^{1} f(x) dx = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \displaystyle \sum_{r = 1}^{n} f( \frac{x}{n})    $.

Now, let $ \frac{k}{n} = x $

$ \implies dx = \frac{1}{n} $.

Therefore the summation becomes

$ = \int_{0}^{1} \bigg ( \frac{1}{1 + x^2} \bigg )

$ \implies \tan^{-1}(x)|_{0}^{1} $

$ \implies tan^{-1}(1) - tan^{-1}(0) $

$ = \frac{\pi}{4}  - 0 $

$ = \frac{\pi}{4} $

Hence, the sum is $ \pi $/4.

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