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Sveta_85 [38]
4 years ago
13

Prove this theorem.

Mathematics
1 answer:
ad-work [718]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Proved!

Step-by-step explanation:

F(s)=\int\limits^\infty_0 f(t)e^{-st}dt=\\\\=\sum\limits^\infty_{n=0}\int\limits^{(n+1)p}_{np}  f(t)e^{-st}dt=\\\\=\sum\limits^\infty_{n=0}\int\limits^p_0 f(u+np)e^{-su-snp}du= \: \:  \: ,(u=t-np)\\\\=\sum\limits^\infty_{n=0} e^{-snp} \int\limits^p_0f(u)e^{-su}du=\\\\=(\int\limits^p_0f(u)e^{-su}du)\sum\limits^\infty_{n=0} e^{-snp}=\\\\=\frac{\int\limits^p_0f(u)e^{-su}du}{1-e^{-ps}}

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Write the equation in standard form.<br><br> 8−5y=−2x
MrMuchimi

bearing in mind that

standard form for a linear equation means

• all coefficients must be integers, no fractions

• only the constant on the right-hand-side

• all variables on the left-hand-side, sorted

• "x" must not have a negative coefficient


8 - 5y = - 2x

2x - 5y = - 8

4 0
3 years ago
Try This one out and I’ll give you brainliest no links or I will report you Thank you
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

32. steps below.

Step-by-step explanation:

So calculate 4(2x2^3-8)

=

4(2^4-8)

calculate

4(16-8)

Then get

4x8=32.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Blaine's company made $ 6 × 103 last year. William's company made 1.2 × 105 times Blaine's company. How much money did William's
Diano4ka-milaya [45]
Blaine's Company: 103 x 6 = 618
William's Company: 1.2 x 105 = 126 
Since William's Company made 126 x Blaine's company's 
126 x 618 = 77868.00
(I am not sure if I did this right I tried though) 
7 0
3 years ago
Complete the table of values for y=6-2x<br><br> Also please work out 6-2x=3
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x=0     y=6-2*0=6

x=1      y=6-2*1=4

x=2      y=6-2*2=2

x=3      y=6-2*3=0

6-2x=3

-6       -6

-2x=-3

2x=3

:2    :2

x=3/2

x=1.5

3 0
4 years ago
Suppose that you are given a bag containing n unbiased coins. You are told that n-1 of these coins are normal, with heads on one
gladu [14]

Answer:

The (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is 2/(1 + n)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Total unbiased coin = n

Normal coins =n - 1

Fake = 1

The (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is represented by

P(Fake | Head)

And it's calculated as follows;

P(Fake | Head) = P(Fake, Head) ÷ P(Head) ----- (1)

Where P(Fake, Head) = P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake)

P(Fake) = 1/n --- because only one is fake

P(Head | Fake) = n/n because all coins (including the fake) have head

So, P(Fake, Head) = P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) becomes

P(Fake, Head) = 1/n * n/n

P(Fake, Head) = 1/n

P(Head) is calculated by

P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) + P(Normal) * P(Head | Normal)

P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) = P(Fake, Head) = 1/n (as calculated above)

P(Normal) * P(Head | Normal) = ½ * (n - 1)/n ----- considering that the coin also has a tail with equal probability as that of the head.

Going back to (1)

P(Fake | Head) = P(Fake, Head) ÷ P(Head) becomes

P(Fake | Head) = (1/n) ÷ ((1/n) + (½(n-1)/n))

= (1/n) ÷ ((1/n) + (½(n-1)/n))

= (1/n) ÷ (1/n + (n - 1)/2n)

= (1/n) ÷ (2 + n - 1)/(2n)

= (1/n) ÷ (1 + n)/(2n)

= (1/n) * (2n)/(1 + n)

= 2/(1 + n)

Hence, the (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is 2/(1 + n)

5 0
3 years ago
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