Answer:
The correct answer is B. False.
Explanation:
Preferred shares are called because they have priority over common shares in the payment of dividends or upon settlement, although they are subordinated to the payment of bonds or obligations. Their conditions are negotiated directly between the issuing entity -bank- and the investor or shareholder. They are a high financial risk asset that can give high bank interest or large losses.
Increased presence of visitor spending
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Answer:
a) Pre-tax cost of debt is 8.45%
b) After tax cost of debt is 5.07%
Explanation:
a) Given:
Debt issue outstanding = $15.5 million
Semi-annual coupon rate = 0.063 / 2 = 0.0315
Assumed par value (FV) = $1,000
Coupon payment (pmt) = 0.0315 × 1000 = $31.5
Current bond price (PV) = 92% of $1,000 = $920
Time period (nper) = 5 × 2 = 10 periods
Calculate semi-annual rate using spreadsheet function =Rate(nper,pmt,PV,FV)
Semi-annual rate = 4.14%
Pmt and FV are negative as they are cash outflows.
YTM = 4.14 × 2 = 8.28%
Effective annual rate = 
= 
= 0.0845 or 8.45%
b) Tax rate is 40%
After tax cost of debt = Pre tax cost of debt × (1 - 0.4)
= 0.0845 × 0.6
= 0.0507 or 5.07%
Answer: a) increase in the demand for bagels
If muffins and bagels are substitutes, a higher price for bagels would result in a(n)
a) increase in the demand for bagels
b) increase in the demand for muffins
c) decrease in the demand for muffins
d) none of the above
b) increase in the demand for muffins
<span>it is true that under the specific charge-off method, a deduction for a bad debt is taken when the debt is determined to be worthless. </span>