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Archy [21]
3 years ago
10

Object permanence is formed near the end of the preoperational stage of development. T or F

Business
2 answers:
Naddik [55]3 years ago
8 0

False. Object permanence is formed near the end of the pre-operational stage of development.  Permanence is what is left needing to be finished at the end of a stage. The pre-operational stage of development is the second stage in the cognitive theory of development.

shtirl [24]3 years ago
3 0
I think it's false hope this helps
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You are thinking of building a new machine that will save your company $1,000 in the first year. The machine will then begin to
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

The answer is $14,285.71

Explanation:

The question indicates that the savings decline at a rate of 2% per year indefinitely. The growing perpetuity(GP) formula is useful in this instance because it is used to calculate the present value of periodic cash flows which grow (or decline) at a constant rate infinitely. The following depicts the formula of a growing perpetuity:

Present value of a GP = Cash flows in period 1/ (discount rate - growth rate)

Note: This formula can only be used when the discount rate is greater than the growth rate. In this case, it is. To compute the present value of this perpetuity, the growth rate will be negative, to show that it is declining, and entered as such into the formula as shown below:

Cash flows in period 1: $1000

Discount rate: 5%

Growth rate: (-2)%

PV = $1000/(0.05 - (-0.02) )

     = $14, 285.71429

5 0
3 years ago
The Golden Braid Bookstore has a quick ratio (Acid Test) of 4.75:1, $40,000 in accounts receivable, and liabilities totaling $80
never [62]

Answer:

Golden Braid Bookstore has $340,000 in cash

Explanation:

Quick ratio=current assets-inventory/current liabilities

Based on the information provided in this question,the quick ratio can be modified(no inventory,cash and accounts receivables are the only current assets)

quick ratio=accounts receivables+cash/current liabilities

quick ratio is 4.75/1

accounts receivables is $40,000

cash is unknown,taken as C

current liabilities is $80,000

4.75=$40,000+C/$80,000

By cross multiplication

4.75*$80,000=$40,000+C

C=(4.75*$80,000)-$40,000

C=$380,000-$40,000

C=$340,000

6 0
3 years ago
How do you treat customer concern?​
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer: The important thing is to listen and try to offer solutions.

Explanation: The client who shows concern is looking for results, for solutions, and that is what you have to offer. In my case, when a client communicates his concern to me, I first let him express himself and let him know what causes him concern. After the client has expressed his concern, my focus is on finding a solution. I analyze all the aspects and try to finalize the attention to my client with ideas to work the problem.

6 0
3 years ago
A Japanese company has a bond outstanding that sells for 90 percent of its ¥100,000 par value. The bond has a coupon rate of 5.7
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

The yield to maturity of this bond is 6.55%

Explanation:

Yield to maturity is the rate of expected return on a bond which is held until the maturity. It is considered as a long term return and expressed in annual terms.  

According to given data

Coupon payment = C = 100,000 x 5.7% = $5,700

Face value = F = 100,000

Price  = P = 100,000 x 90% = 90,000

Number of year to mature = 19

Use following formula yo calculate YTM

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F-P)/n ] / [ (F+P)/2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $5,700 + (100,000-90,000)/19 ] / [ (100,000+90,000)/2 ]

Yield to maturity = 6,226.32 / 95,000 = 0.0655 = 6.55%

4 0
3 years ago
2.
mylen [45]
The answer is B: compound interest
3 0
3 years ago
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