Any thoughts im really confused on it
1 answer:
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Answer with Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that
For each real number
To prove that f is one -to-one.
Proof:Let and
be any nonzero real numbers such that
By using the definition of f to rewrite the left hand side of this equation
Then, by using the definition of f to rewrite the right hand side of this equation of
Equating the expression then we get
Therefore, f is one-to-one.