How did the idea of nationalism rise from the Napoleon wars.

Social Studies

1 answer:

never [62]3 years ago

7 0

<h2><u>Answer:</u></h2>

Napoleon and Nationalism was from 1803-1815, Napoleon and his militaries navigated Europe to attempt to join the mainland under French control. When Napoleon was intersection the landmass, he accidentally spread his optimal of patriotism, which was the possibility of national pride and unity.Thus, Nationalism changed Europe all in all.

There were three steps: first, Napoleon's triumph of Europe spread patriotism all through the mainland; second, the Congress of Vienna quelled patriotism for very nearly a century while mistreating nations rights, which had the confusing impact of spreading.

Nationalism significantly further; third was the Revolutions of 1848 utilized Nationalism to change the initiative and political scene in nations like Austria, France, Spain and Prussia. In this manner, Nationalism changed Europe in general.

You might be interested in

The production of which substance increased during the Han dynasty

Mekhanik [1.2K]

The answer is silk...

5 0

3 years ago

The pattern of learning that is strongest is called:

Bess [88]

It would be A. hope this helps

4 0

2 years ago

Understanding oneself sexually and having interpersonal sexual skills and integrity are two characteristics we consider to be pa

kicyunya [14]

Answer:

<u>Sexual intelligence</u>

Explanation:

<u>Sexual intelligence:</u> The term "sexual intelligence" is determined as the process through which an individual tends to know or gain knowledge about his or her sexuality and various sexual skills that is considered as useful in day to day life. Rather than ignoring a person should gain knowledge about it because sexual intelligence plays an important role in an individual's life.

5 0

3 years ago

Look at each set of three vocabulary terms following each number on the line provided write the letter of a term that does not r

Contact [7]

No terms provided to answer question

5 0

3 years ago

If one of the parties in a real estate transaction are not considered competent, the contract between the parties is considered

Shalnov [3]

If one of the parties in a real estate transaction are not considered competent, the contract between the parties is considered a Voidable contract

Explanation:

The definition of incompetence in terms of real estate transactions is different from the general definition of the word.

It means the inability of a person to make the contract in their whole conscience and sobriety.

This means that any person with mental illness or in a middle of a mental breakdown cannot be considered competent for a transaction, neither a person who is inebriated or drunk if they can prove it

Any contract thus entered by the person is considered to be voidable if the party could prove their incompetence in the court.

7 0

3 years ago