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weeeeeb [17]
3 years ago
15

Abbott Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. Abbott estimates that 3% of credit sales will

be uncollectible. On January 1, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $3,700. During the year, Abbott wrote-off accounts receivable totaling $2,700 and made credit sales of $118,000. After the adjusting entry, the December 31 balance in Bad Debt Expense would be
a. $4,540
b. $3,540
c. $3,700
d. $7,240
Business
1 answer:
defon3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$2,540

Options are inconsistent with given question

Explanation:

Allowance for uncollectible accounts is a contra asset account and it has credit nature. It needs to be debited to decrease the balance and credited to increase the balance. Balance of this account is adjusted in the account receivable to report the net receivable balance in the balance sheet.

As per given data

Beginning allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $3,700

Write off is the adjustment mad in this account and it needs to be debited in this account, this transaction will reduce the balance.

Adjusted Balance = $3,700 - 2,700 = $1,000

Credit sales = $118,000

Estimated allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $118,000 x 3% = $3,540

As allowance for uncollectible accounts has already have balance of $1,000, Bad debt expense for the year is $2,540 ($3,540 - $1,000).

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Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
For each of the unrelated transactions described below, present the entries required to record each transaction.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Explanation:

The Journal Entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr,                                                $19,618,250

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $606,750

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000

(Being Bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

Cash = ($20,225,000 × (97 ÷ 100)

=  $19,618,250

So, the bonds has been issued a discount. The par value of the bonds is 100.

2. Cash Dr,                                                $19,416,000

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $1,820,250

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000  

          To Paid in capital share warrants                   $1,011,250

(Being bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

The Value of bonds issued at a discount

So, value of bonds = ($20,225,000 × ($96 ÷ $100)

= $19,416,000

Now, Value of warrants = ($20,225,000 ÷ 100) × $5

= $1,011,250

Total value of bonds including warrants = Value of bonds + Value of warrants

= $19,416,000 + $1,011,250

= $21,236,250

3. Debt conversion expense Dr,      $78,300

Bonds payable Dr,                             $10,342,000

          To discount payable                            $58,600

           To common stock                               $1,034,200

           To paid in capital in excess

            of common stock                                $9,249,200

           To cash                                                  $78,300

(Being debt conversion is recorded)

6 0
3 years ago
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fiasKO [112]
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3 0
3 years ago
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wendy is a college student in her sophomore year. She is single with no kids, and has her education paid for by schlorship
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4 0
3 years ago
Transfer Pricing
dusya [7]

Answer:

Pembroke= $105,000

Multinomah= $120,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The materials used by the Multinomah Division of Isbister Company are currently purchased from outside suppliers at $90 per unit. These same materials are produced by the Pembroke Division.

The Pembroke Division can produce the materials needed by the Multinomah Division at a variable cost of $75 per unit. The division is currently producing 120,000 units and has capacity of 150,000 units. The two divisions have recently negotiated a transfer price of $82 per unit for 15,000 units.

Pembroke= 15,000*(82 - 75)= $105,000

Multinomah= 15,000*(90 - 82)= $120,000

3 0
3 years ago
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