1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
enot [183]
3 years ago
10

Why did the Europeans use one crop economies in their colonies?

History
1 answer:
WINSTONCH [101]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Europeans generally used a one-crop economy in their colonies, for they are trying to generate wealth, instead of looking after the economies of the colonies. Most of the time, the crop is a "cash crop" or a crop that is worth a lot when needed, but usually cannot be eaten or used as food. They can include Tobacco, Cotton, etc.

However, the usage of only producing one product would lead to a large dependancy on it, and the economy of the certain country would depend on the demand as well as the price of the product. The higher the demand, the better the price, which leads to a better GDP. Of course, this may change on the whim, which makes an extremely unstable economy.

In today's world, only one one-resource economy works, and that is oil. Oil is used for a lot of things, including creating gasoline, diesel, etc, and is used in many modern appliances. However, with the world soon seeing the disastrous affects of the usage of fossil fuels, they are slowly transitioning to renewable resources, which may soon put the "oil kings" out of business, and propelling them back into a third-world status.

In the end, the Europeans used one crop economies in their colonies to generate quick cash, and to keep the economies of the colonies small, which may lead to them having trouble with uprisings.

~

You might be interested in
Are the actions of those preventing African Americans from having equal rights criminal or unethical? Explain.
ASHA 777 [7]
Both because it is...
3 0
3 years ago
What was one difference between the Estates General and the National
drek231 [11]

Answer:

B. The estates general has existed for centuries, while the national assembly was formed in 1789

Explanation:

The states General was first established in  1302. It was a form of legislative assembly where the government gathered a group of people from different classes in order to talk about policies.

So, some form of discussion between the ruling class and the common class has exist in France for centuries before the French revolution.

The national assembly was first held after the French Revolution. The purpose was to create a  new form of government to operate the country after they got rid of the nobles. They felt that even during the estates General, the ruling class only include the common class as toke without paying much attention to their issues.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
. Why have most Indians settled in the coastal regions, the Deccan Plateau,
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

d)Much of the rest of India is not well suited for human habitation

Explanation:

Well suited to human settlement. As India is not willing to accept the plebiscite mechanism contained in the UN ... Dixon later proposed regional plebiscites, meaning that the state of Jammu ... This would have meant that most of the Muslim-dominated areas of what is Indian- ...

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes the understanding between God and his people?
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

a.

covenant

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is one way the u.s constitution expanded the power of the central government?
MA_775_DIABLO [31]
I think its c.creation of a judicial branch 
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Under the provisions of the english bill of rights the king or queen could not raise taxes without the permission of who or what
    6·1 answer
  • Court case<br> Who was involved?<br> Hazelwood v.<br> Kuhlmeier<br> (1988)<br> Doan
    8·2 answers
  • How did the 21st Amendment affect Prohibition within the United States?
    14·1 answer
  • At the End of the Santa Fe Trail, was written by __________ a. Sister Blandina. c. Fray Marcos de Niza. b. Oñate. d. Sister Cath
    5·2 answers
  • All of the following modern-day issues have roots in the creation of suburbs EXCEPT:
    13·1 answer
  • Why was James Watt important during the Industrial Revolution?
    10·1 answer
  • Movement to ensure that native born Americans received better treatment than immigrants. *​
    5·1 answer
  • Please help I have no clue which one it is :(​
    14·1 answer
  • Does the text contain a vague pronoun reference?
    14·1 answer
  • HELP!!!!!!!!! Did all of the representatives at the Continental Congress agree on what they should do about England? Explain.
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!